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Code d'Examen: BH0-008
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value of green
IT? a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact. b.Redefine their business strategy to
include green initiatives. c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message. d.Provide a green
discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme? a.Alienation of key staff.
b.Additional unplanned costs. c.Perceived lack of benefits. d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme? a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers. c.Company shareholders. d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets
green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an organisation?
Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green IT
programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling.
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-PM1
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Project Management)
Questions et réponses: 625 Q&As

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NO.1 You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should
provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
Answer: A

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NO.2 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement
professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized
contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
Answer: D

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NO.3 A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and
stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
Answer: C

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NO.5 While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track. What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST appropriate advice for the
situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project
planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
Answer: C

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NO.7 If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
Answer: A

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NO.10 The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What
is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A

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NO.11 Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
Answer: A

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NO.12 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your
chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C

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NO.14 All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project
charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
Answer: C

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NO.17 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status. How would you define this situation.?
A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.20 A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the
project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: BH0-012
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (The Foundation® ITIL (2012 Onwards) )
Questions et réponses: 166 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the
service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified
during design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1.Design of the service metrics
2.Business continuity strategy
3.Business impact analysis (BIA)
4.Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?"
step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster
than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service
portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer
Answer: D

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NO.7 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.8 What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service design
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service operation
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CISSP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )
Questions et réponses: 2137 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.9 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

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NO.10 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

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NO.11 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

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NO.12 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.13 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

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NO.14 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.18 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.19 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

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NO.23 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

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NO.27 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.29 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: CISSP-ISSEP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (CISSP-ISSEP - Information Systems Security Engineering Professional)
Questions et réponses: 214 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process
A. Authorizing Official
B. Information system owner
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following elements are described by the functional requirements task Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Coverage
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Quantity
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following documents is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE
when classifying the needed security functionality
A. Information Protection Policy (IPP)
B. IMM
C. System Security Context
D. CONOPS
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to identify
security breaches.?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. ASA
D. EAP
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's
configuration management process
A. Chief Information Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
Answer: C

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NO.6 FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a
methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels
shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed?
A. Level 4
B. Level 5
C. Level 1
D. Level 2
E. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following federal laws is designed to protect computer data from theft
A. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
C. Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA)
D. Computer Security Act
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready
for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media
A. ATM
B. RTM
C. CRO
D. DAA
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation
(C&A) Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
B. NIST Special Publication 800-60
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37A
D. NIST Special Publication 800-37
E. NIST Special Publication 800-53
F. NIST Special Publication 800-53A
Answer: A,B,D,E,F

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NO.10 Which of the following tasks obtains the customer agreement in planning the technical effort
A. Task 9
B. Task 11
C. Task 8
D. Task 10
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following Security Control Assessment Tasks gathers the documentation and supporting
materials essential for the assessment of the security controls in the information system
A. Security Control Assessment Task 4
B. Security Control Assessment Task 3
C. Security Control Assessment Task 1
D. Security Control Assessment Task 2
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls
A. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
B. Risk Management
C. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following security controls is a set of layered security services that address
communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space
A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
B. Common data security architecture (CDSA)
C. File encryptors
D. Application program interface (API)
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure terminal to a remote network device
A. WEP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following email lists is written for the technical audiences, and provides weekly
summaries of security issues, new vulnerabilities, potential impact, patches and workarounds, as well as
the actions recommended to mitigate risk
A. Cyber Security Tip
B. Cyber Security Alert
C. Cyber Security Bulletin
D. Technical Cyber Security Alert
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following guidelines is recommended for engineering, protecting, managing, processing,
and controlling national security and sensitive (although unclassified) information
A. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
B. Special Publication (SP)
C. NISTIRs (Internal Reports)
D. DIACAP by the United States Department of Defense (DoD)
Answer: B

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NO.17 The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has
been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
C. Change management
D. Compliance validation
E. System operations
F. Maintenance of the SSAA
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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NO.18 Which of the following types of firewalls increases the security of data packets by remembering the state
of connection at the network and the session layers as they pass through the filter
A. Stateless packet filter firewall
B. PIX firewall
C. Stateful packet filter firewall
D. Virtual firewall
Answer: C

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NO.19 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one
A. Configuration Item Costing
B. Configuration Identification
C. Configuration Verification and Auditing
D. Configuration Status Accounting
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following elements of Registration task 4 defines the system's external interfaces as well
as the purpose of each external interface, and the relationship between the interface and the system
A. System firmware
B. System software
C. System interface
D. System hardware
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-574
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli WebSphere App Studio V3.2)
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 For WebSphere Studio Application Monitor (WSAM) V3.2 Management Server with DB2 database to
start and function properly, what must you do to set up the DB2 environment before issuing the command
'sh am-start.sh'?
A. locate source the filesetup_env, which is located in the /etc/Tivoli directory
B. locate and source the file's db2profile, which is located in the WAS_HOME directory
C. locate and source the file db2profile, which is located in the WSAM_HOME directory
D. locate and source the file db2profile, which is located in the sqllib subdirectory of the DB2 home
directory
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following would allow you to display graphs and charts properly on the WebSphere Studio
Application Monitor (WSAM) V3.2 Managing Server Console?
A. in theWebSphere Administrative Console, go to Application Servers->server_wsam->Process
Definition->Java Virtual Machine->Custom Properties and set property java.awt.headless=true
B. in theWebSphere Administrative Console, go to Application Servers->server_wsam->Process
Definition->Java Virtual Machine->Custom Properties and set property java.awt.headless=false
C. n theWebSphere Administrative Console, go to Application Servers->server_wsam->Process
Definition->Java Virtual Machine->Custom Properties and set property java.awt.headless=xterm
D. in theWebSphere Administrative Console, go to Application Servers->server_wsam->Process
Definition->Java Virtual Machine->Custom Properties and set property
java.awt.headless=/usr/bin/X11
Answer: A

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NO.3 What information is collected at trace Level 2? (Choose three.)
A. CPU information
B. method level trace
C. component level trace
D. last known class name
E. advanced request data
F. page swapping information
Answer: A,C,E

IBM examen   000-574   000-574   000-574

NO.4 In order to monitor composite transactions in z/OS environment using WebSphere Studio Application
Monitor, what must be done as part of Data Collector install? What needs to be running in order to be able
to collect correlation data for CICS and IMS Subsystems?
A. CYN1PROC
B. CYN1 Subsystem
C. CYN1PROC and RACF
D. CYN1PROC and CYN1 Subsystem
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-574   000-574   000-574 examen

NO.5 What must you do when installing WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2 Managing Server while
using a Network Deployment WebSphere environment?
A. use the default values provided (hostname, and port number 8880)
B. use the localWebSphere information (hostname, and port number)
C. use the Deployment Manager information (hostname, and port number)
D. clear the hostname and port number fields so that the installer can dynamically derive the correct
hostname and port number
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-574   000-574

NO.6 During the embedded DB2 installation, the install logs can be found in what directory?
A. /opt
B. /tmp
C. $AM_HOME/logs
D. $WAS_HOME/logs
Answer: B

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NO.7 If you want to trim all data up to 7 days ago, then daystokeep=7. For example, if today is December 18,
2006, and you specify daystokeep=7, the Data Trimmer will do which of the following?
A. delete all data up to December 12, 2006, inclusive
B. delete all data up to December 11, 2006, inclusive
C. delete all data up to December 10th, 2006, inclusive
D. need to know the time of day to calculate the window
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
From the messages shown, which action should be considered?
A. stop and start the Data Collector
B. reduce the batch size of the Archive Agent
C. stop and start the Kernel and Publish Servers
D. increase Maximum Method Records in the WSAM User Interface Managing Server System Properties
Answer: D

IBM   000-574 examen   000-574   000-574

NO.9 Which three actions help in troubleshooting when a Data Collector fails to join the Managing Server
after installation, even though the application server starts successfully? (Choose three.)
A. check the message dispatcher logs
B. confirm whether Virtual Frame Buffer is running
C. confirm that the Custom Service is checked to
tartup?FRQILUPWKDWWKH&XVWRP6HUYLFHLVFKHFNHGWR?WDUWXS
D. check the monitored application server's SystemOut.log
E. check the PMI settings in theWebSphere Admin Console
F. ping both ways from the Managing Server and the Data Collector server
Answer: C,D,F

IBM   000-574   000-574   certification 000-574

NO.10 With WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2, the database port must be provided. How can you
determine the port that is being used by the DB2 instance?
A. You use the b2 listdb2port command.
B. It is provided when the database is installed.
C. The port is discovered dynamically during the install.
D. You use the b2 getdbm cfg command or viewing /etc/services.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-574 examen   000-574

NO.11 To perform database maintenance, which script should be scheduled to run daily?
A. amctl.sh
B. wdctl.sh
C. run-stats-cmd.sh
D. the data trimmer script
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-574 examen   certification 000-574   000-574   certification 000-574

NO.12 During a Data Collector install, what would cause the application server you are monitoring to fail?
A. PMI being turned off
B. Managing Server not running
C. Virtual Frame Buffer not running
D. an error in the generic JVM arguments
Answer: D

IBM   000-574   000-574   000-574   000-574 examen

NO.13 Which is specific to Oracle and should be created and used when setting up the remote Oracle
database server for the WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2 Management Server?
A. SID
B. database
C. JDBC driver path
D. database instance
Answer: A

IBM   000-574 examen   000-574 examen   000-574 examen   000-574 examen

NO.14 Which of the following ports should be used when WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2 Data
Collectors are being installed in a non-network deployment environment?
A. RMI port of the local admin server
B. HTTP port of the local admin server
C. the SOAP port of the local admin server
D. the bootstrap port of the local admin server
Answer: C

IBM   000-574 examen   000-574 examen

NO.15 During the WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2 Managing Server GUI installation, you are
asked to select features to install. One feature is 'Create Local Database.' If you need to create the DB2
database after the installation, what script needs to be run?
A. setenv.sh
B. db2install.sh
C. ManagingServer.sh
D. db2createschema.sh
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification 000-574   000-574

NO.16 Which Managing Server log(s) might help you discover problems with accessing the database?
A. am_ms.log
B. am_sam.log
C. am_ps1.log and am_ps2.log
D. am_aa1.log and am_aa2.log
Answer: D

IBM   000-574   000-574   certification 000-574   certification 000-574

NO.17 On which operating system can a Data Collector be applied to a WebSphere server instance,
which includes all server regions on that instance?
A. AIX
B. z/OS
C. Solaris
D. Windows
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-574   000-574

NO.18 Which change is made by the WebSphere Studio Application Monitoring V3.2 distributed Data
Collector installer (both GUI and silent)?
A. adding SMF support
B. adding a custom service called "AM Custom Service"
C. creating the user "amuser" in the base operating system
D. sourcing the database user's profile in the profile for the user "amuser"
Answer: B

IBM   000-574   000-574 examen   000-574   000-574   certification 000-574

NO.19 The Data Collector installation seems successful and the monitored application server starts
successfully. However, the Data Collector does not show up in the Unconfigured Data Collectors list.
Which log would show the most relevant information?
A. the WSAM User Interface Self-Diagnosis
B. the Managing Server's Archive Agent's log
C. the monitored application server'sSystemOut log
D. the Managing Server's Visualization Engine'sSystemOut log
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-574   000-574 examen

NO.20 When enabling PDF support on WebLogic for the Visualization Engine, which script needs to be
modified to include the correct classpaths?
A. klctl.sh
B. setenv.sh
C. am-start.sh
D. startServer.sh
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-744
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DS4000 Technical Version 1)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Answer: B

IBM   000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.2 To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide
certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional
information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-744   000-744 examen   certification 000-744   certification 000-744

NO.3 A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are
well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the
problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-744   certification 000-744

NO.4 When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository
logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source
logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Answer: B

IBM   000-744   certification 000-744   certification 000-744

NO.5 How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.6 When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Answer: C

IBM   000-744   000-744   certification 000-744

NO.7 Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered
Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in
this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-744 examen   000-744 examen   000-744 examen   000-744   000-744 examen

NO.8 When configuring a customer's multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-744   000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.9 Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the
proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the
same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller
firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at
different times.
Answer: A

IBM   000-744 examen   certification 000-744   000-744 examen

NO.10 What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.11 Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacity
from use.
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-744   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744

NO.12 You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from
headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this
approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control over
data going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Answer: D

IBM   000-744   000-744

NO.13 You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use
RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Answer: A

IBM   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744

NO.14 A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-744   000-744

NO.15 In addition to the storage administrator's e-mail address, what information do you need to set up
e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
B. sender's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
C. storage administrator's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
D. storage administrator's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
Answer: A

certification IBM   certification 000-744   000-744 examen

NO.16 In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on
logical drive" indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Answer: A

IBM   000-744 examen   000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.17 What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-744   000-744

NO.18 In the exhibit, which management method is being used?
A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification 000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.19 What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744 examen

NO.20 What best describes a drive in eplaced status?
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery
process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active
drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-744   certification 000-744

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Code d'Examen: 000-833
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Object Oriented Analysis and Design-Part1(Analysis))
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 What are analysis classes?
A. early conjectures on the composition of the system that usually change over time, rarely surviving
intact into Implementation
B. incomplete classes that require a programmer to formalize operation signatures and attribute types
before they can be implemented
C. the classes inside a systems Business Object or Domain Model, in UML form
D. a prototype of a systems user interface, developed during the Analysis Phase, which allows users to
define the systems look and feel
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-833   000-833 examen   000-833

NO.2 Which statement is true?
A. The UML is a development process for software intensive systems.
B. The UML is a process-dependent language used for visualizing software artifacts.
C. The UML is a modeling language for software blueprints.
D. The UML is a visual programming language.
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-833   certification 000-833   certification 000-833

NO.3 An architect looks at two classes. The first class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(),getTotal(), and findAverage(). The second class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(), findAverage(), findMinimum(), and findMaximum(). The two classes share the same
superclass. Which operations are most likely contained in the superclass?
A. getName(), getSize(), and findAverage()
B. findMaximum(), findMinimum(), getSize(), and getTotal()
C. getName(), findAverage(), and findMaximum()
D. getName(), getSize(), getTotal(), and findAverage()
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-833 examen   000-833   000-833

NO.4 Which is a characteristic of a structured class?
A. must have one interface for each role it plays
B. can play only one role, no matter how many objects transact with it
C. can play multiple roles that vary on the objects that interact with it
D. is limited to one role, but can have multiple interfaces
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-833   000-833 examen   000-833 examen   000-833

NO.5 Why is encapsulation important? (Choose two.)
A. It describes the relationship between two subclasses.
B. It places operations and attributes in the same object.
C. It allows other objects to change private operations and attributes of an object.
D. It prevents other objects from directly changing the attributes of an object.
Answer: BD

IBM   000-833 examen   000-833 examen   certification 000-833

NO.6 What is the focus of analysis?
A. translating functional requirements into code
B. translating requirements into a system design
C. translating real-world concepts into solution-oriented objects
D. translating functional requirements into software concepts
Answer: D

IBM   000-833   000-833 examen   000-833 examen   000-833 examen   000-833 examen

NO.7 An architect is responsible for creating an Analysis Model for a system. Which area of focus is
essential for the creation of this model?
A. hardware on which the system will be deployed
B. behavior of the objects that comprise the system
C. evolution of analysis classes into design classes
D. performance requirements of the system
Answer: B

IBM   000-833 examen   000-833 examen   000-833 examen   000-833
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NO.8 Which statement is true about an iterative development process?
A. Testing and integration take place in every iteration.
B. An iteration focuses on partial completion of selected use-case realizations.
C. It encourages user feedback in later iterations.
D. It is based on functional decomposition of a system.
Answer: A

IBM   000-833 examen   000-833   000-833

NO.9 Which two statements are true about interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. The interface should have a clear purpose.
B. A single interface should include as many possible methods, if not all methods, that may be shared by
objects that implement the interface.
C. An interface should be used to restrict which methods are exposed to a client.
D. Classes may have multiple interfaces depending on the purpose of each interface it implements.
Answer: AD

IBM   000-833 examen   000-833   000-833

NO.10 In which three ways does a structured class differ from a traditional class? (Choose three.)
A. It clearly defines the class boundary via an encapsulation shell.
B. It brings public interfaces into the class via ports.
C. It shows the role that the class plays.
D. It defines messages between itself and other classes.
Answer: ABC

IBM   000-833   000-833   certification 000-833

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