2013年7月31日星期三

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Code d'Examen: BCP-621

Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution v5.0 in a IBM Lotus Domino Environment)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Nextair Corporation has determined the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using the
existing SQL database. What is an advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. There is no downtime for other BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 instances sharing
the same SQL database
B. They will save the cost of an additional SRP Identifier
C. There is no need to back up the database prior to upgrade
D. The SQL database must be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.2 After upgrading two Blackberry Enterprise Server instances to software version 5.0 services books and
IT polices are automatically updated and sent to BlackBerry devices running which minimum version of
BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose one)
A. 3.8 and above
B. 4.0 and above
C. 4.2 and above
D. 4.3 and above
E. 5.0 and above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Management has requested that the ability to activate BlackBerry devices on the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server be restricted to approved BlackBerry device models only. What can be used to accommodate this
request? (Choose one)
A. IT Policy
B. PIN to Model Mapping
C. Enterprise Service Policy
D. Application Control Policy
E. Group Filter
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tool can be used to help control the amount of data the BlackBerry Synchronization Service
sends after an upgrade to BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 is complete? (Choose one)
A. SBInjector
B. PolcTrait
C. TraitTool
D. SBThrottle
E. SyncControl
Answer: C

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NO.5 One thousand BlackBerry 8830 devices have been sent to the employees in the regional offices and the
BlackBerry device users will be issued enterprise activation passwords next week.
Management would like to prevent unneeded wireless data charges. What can be done to ensure this
mass enterprise activation process uses as little wireless data as possible? (Choose one)
A. Set the 'Disable Wireless Activations' IT policy to 'True'
B. Set the 'Disable Wireless Bulk Loads' IT policy to 'True'
C. Set the 'Disable Enterprise Activation Progress' IT policy to 'True'
D. Set theisable Wireline Activations' IT policySet the ?isable Wireline Activations' IT policy to 'True'
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 010-002

Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (Certified MySQL Associate (English))

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement can be used to list all columns in the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DISPLAY COLUMNS FROM City
B. SHOW COLUMNS FROM City
C. SHOW COLUMNS LIKE 'City'
D. SHOW City COLUMNS
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements can be used to list all databases that are accessible to the current
user?
Select the best response.
A. LIST DATABASES
B. SHOW DATABASES
C. DISPLAY DATABASES
D. VIEW DATABASES
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which part of a SELECT statement specifies the tables from which data is to be retrieved?
Select the best response.
A. The SELECT list.
B. The FROM clause.
C. The WHERE clause.
D. The LIMIT clause.
Answer: B

MYSQL examen   010-002   010-002

NO.4 Which of the following statements will discard the existing database called world?
Select the best response.
A. DELETE DATABASE world
B. DROP DATABASE world
C. REMOVE DATABASE world
D. TRUNCATE DATABASE world
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the SQL WHERE clause?
In SQL statements, the WHERE clause specifies ...
Select the best response.
A. the tables from which data is to be retrieved.
B. a condition to filter for only specific rows.
C. a condition to filter for only specific groups defined by a GROUP BY clause.
D. a number to limit the number of rows that is operated upon by the statement.
Answer: B

MYSQL   010-002   010-002 examen

NO.6 The table Country contains the following rows:
+--------------------------+------------+
| Name | Population |
+--------------------------+------------+
| Nauru | 12000 |
| Turks and Caicos Islands | 17000 |
| Tuvalu | 12000 |
| Wallis and Futuna | 15000 |
+--------------------------+------------+
Which of the following statements will return all rows in the table, sorted by the value in the Population
column?
Select the best response.
A. SELECT Name, Population ASC
FROM Country
B. SELECT Name, ORDER BY Population
FROM Country
C. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
GROUP BY Population ASC
D. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
ORDER BY Population
Answer: D

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NO.7 The default database contains a table called City. Which of the following statements may be executed
to obtain a statement that could be used to (re-)create the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DESCRIBE City
B. DESCRIBE TABLE City
C. SHOW TABLE City
D. SHOW CREATE TABLE City
Answer: D

MYSQL   010-002   010-002 examen

NO.8 A MySQL table has ...
Select the best response.
A. zero or more columns, and zero or more rows.
B. zero or more columns, and one or more rows.
C. one or more columns, and zero or more rows.
D. one or more columns, and one or more rows.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In the context of database transactions, the atomicity property guarantees that...
Select the best response.
A. during a transaction, rows are processed one at a time.
B. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are immediately committed.
C. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are committed or rolled back as one unit.
D. other transactions cannot see the changes made in other ongoing uncommitted transactions.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A table is successfully created by executing the following statement:
CREATE TABLE numbers (
double_number double,
decimal_number decimal(2,1)
)
One row is successfully inserted into the numbers table. At this point, the table contains the following
data:
+---------------+----------------+
| double_number | decimal_number |
+---------------+----------------+
| 1.5 | 2.5 |
+---------------+----------------+
The row is updated by executing the following statement:
UPDATE numbers
SET double_number = double_number + 0.25,
decimal_number = decimal_number + 0.01
Which values are now stored in the double_number and decimal_number columns of the updated row?
Select the best response.
A. 1.8 and 2.5
B. 1.75 and 2.5
C. 1.8 and 2.51
D. 1.75 and 2.51
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C_TB1200_07

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007)

Questions et réponses: 152 Q&As

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NO.1 The following statements relate to the analysis of sales opportunities. Which statements are correct?
A.Use the Opportunity Statistics Report to analyze entered, open, and closed opportunities in the system.
B.To get an overview of the progress of all sales opportunities, use the Stage Analysis report.
C.The Opportunities Forecast Report only takes account of completed opportunities.
D.Open opportunities are not included in the Opportunity Pipeline analysis.
E.A sales manager can use selection criteria in "My Open Opportunities Report" to view sales
opportunites for any of his direct reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.2 Sophie created a query and now wants to print a report from the query. What must Sophie do before
she can print the query results?
A.Link her query to a base template using the Query Manager.
B.Link her query to a base template using the Print Layout Designer.
C.Link her query to a base template using the Query Print Layout tool.
D.Link her query to a base template using the Query Generator.
Answer:A

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NO.3 You are reviewing the details of a user-defined query and notice the strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3]. What
is the function of these strings in a query?
A.The string [%0] is a variable used to create a query. Each variable is unique, so if more than one
variable is defined, each requires a unique name such as: [%1], [%2].
B.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] represent fixed values in the query.
C.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are conditions you can see displayed in the Conditions column in the
Query Generator.
D.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are fields from the OITM table which you can retrieve from either the
Query Generator or Query Wizard.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which statements are correct regarding inventory valuation methods?
A.With moving average cost valuation, stock is valued by dividing the total value by the total quantity.
B.With moving average cost valuation, you must enter a cost price into the item master record.
C.With standard cost valuation, stock may need to be periodically revalued.
D.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the oldest item.
E.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the most recent item.
Answer:A B C D E

SAP   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07

NO.5 What functions are available in the Human Resources module of SAP Business One?
A.Payroll processing
B.Shift planning
C.Employee master data
D.Recording and evaluation of absences
E.Tracking of employee costs and salaries
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.6 You want to show your customer which documents relate to each other in SAP Business One. Which
of these statements is correct?
A.When you display a document, you can use the base and target document icons to display a document
flow.
B.From the document, drill down to the business partner master data and choose Document Flow.
C.Use Drag Relate to display which documents are related to each other.
D.You can branch from the display of a document to its history. There you find a chronological list of all
base and target documents.
Answer:A

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NO.7 The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer:
price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales
documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?
A.1) Special prices for the customer 2) Discount groups linked to the business partner 3) Period and
volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner 4) The price list specified in
the business partner master data
B.1) Discount groups 2) Special prices for the customer 3) Period and volume discounts for the price list
linked to the business partner 4) The default price list for the customer
C.1) The default price list for the document 2) Discount groups tied to the document 3) Special prices for
the customer
D.1) Customer special prices 2) Discount groups 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list
linked to the document 4) Price list defined for the document
Answer:A

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NO.8 I want to create a query to display all the invoices over $1500 issued for a specific customer by one of
my sales employees Sara Chang. How do I find which fields I should enter in the SQL query?
A.When you hold down the Ctrl key and click the mouse on a field you want to display, the table and field
name will appear at the bottom of the screen.
B.When you click the mouse on a field you want to display and choose View -> System information, the
table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen in the Status Bar.
C.Open the Query Wizard because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query.
D.Use the Query Generator because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query,
after you click the mouse on a field you want to display.
Answer:B

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NO.9 Sophie created a user-defined query and linked a template to it using the query print layout function.
After she designed the template she realized that she needs to add an additional column of data to the
report. Can Sophie add new columns to the existing report?
A.No. Since Sophie can only change static report information and cannot add database fields to the
matrix data, she must create a new query and assign it to a new print template.
B.No. Once Sophie has assigned the template to the query, she cannot make any changes to any field in
the report.
C.Yes. Sophie can add new columns to the report by creating a new database field in the repetitive area
of the linked template.
D.Yes. Sophie can create a new column in the template, and since it is linked to the query, it will update
the original template and the matrix data automatically.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Kathryn from Roses and Sunflowers gift shop creates a purchase order for an item, which is out of
stock. The current stock level for the item is zero. There are no open purchase orders or sales orders for
this item. After she has selected the item in the purchase order, she notices that there is a 4 in the
'Quantity' field. Why?
A.The value in the 'Items per Purchase Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
B.The value in the 'Factor 2' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
C.The value in the 'Required (Purchasing UoM) Inventory Level' field is 4.
D.The value in the 'Quantity Per Packaging Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
Answer:A B C D

SAP   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07

NO.11 For which of the following events is the moving average cost recalculated?
A.Stock entry.
B.Stock release.
C.Completion of a production order.
D.Purchase order submission.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.12 Every day my employees run a query to check how many orders we have issued on that day and what
their value was. I have created a simple query using the Orders table (ORDR): Document Number,
Document Date, Document Total Where Document Date EQUAL 01/05/07 (for example). How can I
create a "general" query so I do not have to go into this query statement every day to change the date in
the "Where" condition area?
A.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%0]' then save
the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
B.Delete the condition from the query. Create a general query that will display all the orders created in the
system to date. When the report displays, use the Sort Table to display the desired data.
C.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date NOT EQUAL '[%0]' then
save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
D.Define a variable in the "Group By" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%3]' then
save the query.
Answer:A

SAP   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07

NO.13 Which elements of a query are optional when you create a query with the Query Wizard?
A.Conditions
B.Table entries
C.Field entries
D.Grouping
E.Sorting
Answer:A B C D E

SAP   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07 examen

NO.14 A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company's sales manager
wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries. What would you
recommend?
A.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and Deliveries as the
base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
B.Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all
deliveries for the relevant month.
C.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and Delivery as the
target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
D.Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target
document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.
Answer:A

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NO.15 The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he
does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?
A.Activate and configure the predefined alert function 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
B.Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
C.Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.
D.Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to
each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical
point. What is the easiest way of doing this?
A.In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level. Whenever employees post
a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an email message to the
purchasing manager.
B.In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the
predefined alert 'Minimum Stock Deviation' that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls
below this threshold.
C.Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a
user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make
sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.
D.In the document settings, set the 'When Attempting to Release Stock Below the Minimum Level'
indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the
purchasing manager automatically receives a message.
Answer:C

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NO.17 PKJ Ltd maintains its price list automatically based on last purchase price. When PKJ sells a product,
they want to add their overhead of 40% to the sales price. How can they accomplish this?
A.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list, select all the prices and increase
them by 40%.
B.Create a Customer price list and enter the sales prices.
C.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list with a factor of 1.4.
D.In the business partner master data, select the Last Purchase price list and specify a premium of 40%.
Answer:C

SAP examen   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07   C_TB1200_07

NO.18 I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this
partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for
another business partner in the past. Is this possible?
A.Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select 'Sales Quotation' as the document type,
then select a quotation from another business partner.
B.Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the 'Partner'. You can
now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.
C.You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.
D.You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.
Answer:A

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NO.19 What are the advantages of query print layouts as opposed to standard queries?
A.You can adjust the template of the query print layouts.
B.You can add sub-sorts and sub-totals using the print layout designer.
C.Query print layouts can be based on several queries.
D.Authorization administration for query print layouts is simpler.
E.You can standardize your report layouts by using a customized base template, for example, with the
company logo, for all the reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.20 How is the available quantity calculated in SAP Business One?
A.Quantity in stock - quantity committed + quantity ordered.
B.Quantity in stock + quantity committed - quantity ordered.
C.Quantity in stock + quantity ordered.
D.Quantity in stock - quantity committed.
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: C_BOE_30

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)

Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.3 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.10 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.12 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.14 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.17 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.20 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C_TBW45_70

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Business Intelligence with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Why are variables used in queries? (Choose three)
A. To limit the scope of a report and improve performance.
B. To improve the reliability of the results.
C. To limit the scope of a report and make it more targeted to a user or group of users.
D. To reduce the number of query definitions by having one query satisfy the needs of many users.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Organizations that are 'data rich, but information poor' might gain from the business knowledge
discovered through data mining. Which of the following are true regarding data mining? (Choose three)
A. Clustering is a data mining method.
B. Data mining is an analytical approach that looks for hidden information patterns in large databases.
C. Data mining can easily analyze historical information, but is unable to predict future trends.
D. Regression analysis is a data mining method.
E. ETL (Extraction, Transformation and Loading) is a data mining method.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)
A. A Query
B. A Query view created with the BEx Analyzer
C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements best describe the benefit of using data bursting as a broadcasting
distribution type? Data Bursting: (Choose two)
A. Allows you to broadcast report results to large numbers of non-SAP users via email.
B. Provides an easy way to improve the performance of all web-based BEx reports.
C. Provides an effective way to manage security across all BEx reports.
D. Allows you to broadcast user-specific results based on master data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Valid BEx Broadcaster distribution types include: (Choose two)
A. Archive object
B. Email
C. CSV file
D. Printer
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 The design mode of the BEx Analyzer allows you to: (Choose two)
A. Add your own navigation controls such as drop down lists and check boxes.
B. Add in your own broadcast scheduling options so users receive the workbook by email and in their SAP
NetWeaver Portal role.
C. Insert results from other data providers into the same workbook.
D. Access a toolbox of predefined macros that can automate common tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Valid BI source objects for the BEx Broadcaster include: (Choose three)
A. Queries
B. iViews
C. Workbooks
D. Value Sets
E. Reports created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 Which of the following are valid navigation steps in reporting in SAP NetWeaver BI? (Choose three)
A. Swap one characteristic with another.
B. Filter on a specific characteristic value.
C. Return to Start.
D. Sum and Filter.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 The APD (Analysis Process Designer) in SAP NetWeaver BI provides a mechanism for reading data
from a source and then transferring the analytical results back out to a data target. In this scenario, which
of the following are possible data targets of the APD? (Choose two)
A. Standard DataStore Objects
B. VirtualProviders
C. Meta Data Repository
D. DataStore Objects for direct update
E. InfoObject master data tables
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 Which of the following statements regarding BEx Query Designer are correct? (Choose three)
A. Before defining a formula, you must ensure you have already created any restricted key figures that will
be referenced in the formula.
B. You can only drag and drop multiple characteristics into the query definition if they come from the same
dimension.
C. You can save a query that contains errors.
D. If a query contains errors, the system provides information to help you correct them, including menu
options that may be suitable.
E. You can maintain many of the properties of multiple characteristics or key figures simultaneously.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 Where can variables be created? (Choose two)
A. In the query definition where they are needed.
B. In the BEx Web Application Designer, in the "Data Provider" field.
C. While using a web browser to view query results.
D. When defining exceptions and conditions.
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is a potential
conflict?
A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area occupied by
the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second query.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Characteristic value variables...
A. ...are created in the query definition and are therefore only available in that query definition.
B. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of the
same InfoProvider.
C. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of
InfoProviders containing this characteristic.
D. ...can be created for global use on an InfoProvider level, and can be created for local use in the query
definition.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your client is interested in the various formats used to distribute BI information. Which of the following
formats are available? (Choose three)
A. Precalculated XML file with separate MIME files.
B. Precalculated BEx Analyzer Workbooks.
C. Precalculated MHTML file.
D. Online links to current data.
E. Precalculated DOC file with separate MIME files.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.15 One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static snap-shots of
data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)
A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as 'Independent HTML File'.
C. For a web template, send as 'HTML with Separate MIME Files' as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an 'Online Link'.
Answer: A,B,C

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Code d'Examen: C_TSCM52_64

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In the future,
you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups, valuation
classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles to the
new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to the new
material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles to the
new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the advertising
articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.2 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 For a material without a material master record, a source of supply is to be found when a purchase
requisition is created.
You request 10 pallets of copier paper belonging to material group 4711.
Which of the following sources of supply is proposed by the system?
A. Value contract with item category W (material group) for articles of material group 4711
B. Value contract for material 4711
C. SRM central contract with item category M (material unknown) for 100 tons of copier paper of material
group 4711
D. Quantity contract for over 500 pallets of copier paper for a stock material that belongs to material group
4711
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which of the following cases is the goods receipt always posted as non-valuated?
A. Goods receipt for initial stock entry
B. Goods receipt to the stock of material provided to vendor
C. Goods receipt for a free-of-charge delivery
D. Goods receipt to the consignment stock
Answer: D

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NO.6 You want to post a goods issue from stock in quality inspection. In which of the following cases is this
possible? (Choose two.)
A. Withdrawal for scrapping
B. Withdrawal for inspection sample
C. Withdrawal for a reservation
D. Withdrawal for a cost center
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date and quantity.
To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following elements belong to warehouse stock available for MRP in net requirement
calculation? (Choose three.)
A. Warehouse stock
B. On-order stock
C. Reorder point
D. Non-valuated goods receipt blocked stock
E. Fixed purchase requisitions
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing? (Choose two.)
A. The transactions in which a movement type can be used
B. The reversal movement types for a movement type
C. The quantity and value updates for postings with a movement type
D. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with a
movement type
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.11 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization".?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is mandatory in a purchase order for a non-valuated material?
A. Set the indicator for goods receipt.
B. Select an account assignment category and assign an account assignment object.
C. Set the indicator for non-valuated goods receipts.
D. Set the indicator for invoice receipt.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase requisitions
with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements in requirements
planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of supply in the
source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item using
"Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor" indicator in
the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which of the following is a prerequisite for transfer postings between two materials ("material to
material")?
A. The materials being transferred must have the same valuation class.
B. The materials being transferred must have the same material type.
C. The materials being transferred must have the same material group.
D. The materials being transferred must have the same base unit of measure.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C_TFIN52_05

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)

Questions et réponses: 299 Q&As

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NO.1 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.4 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.6 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

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NO.7 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.11 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement, not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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NO.13 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.14 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.16 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.17 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.18 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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NO.19 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

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NO.20 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

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NO.21 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.22 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.23 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.24 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.25 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

SAP examen   C_TFIN52_05   C_TFIN52_05

NO.26 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

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NO.27 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

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NO.28 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.29 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.30 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C-TFIN22-64

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Management Accounting (CO) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 A company wants to prevent postings of more than 5000 EUR on cost centers by
generating an error
message. What do you recommend?
A. Activating and using availability control for cost centers.
B. Creating a substitution rule in the IMG.
C. Creating a lock amount on the control tab in the cost center master data.
D. Creating a validation rule in the IMG.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following are the usage scenarios for Solution Manager.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Implementation
B. Optimization
C. Retirement
D. Operations
E. Validation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the typical sequence of steps in an ASAP roadmap?
A. Business blueprint -> Project preparation -> Final preparation -> Realization -> Go-live and
support
B. Project preparation -> Final preparation -> Business blueprint -> Realization -> Go-live and
support
C. Project preparation -> Business blueprint -> Realization -> Final preparation -> Go-live
and support
D. Project preparation -> Realization -> Business blueprint -> Final preparation -> Go-live
and support
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer wants to perform cost center planning to reflect different expectations for
the future. How
can the customer create different plans in parallel?
A. Use different versions.
B. Use different costing variants.
C. Use different planning areas.
D. Use different valuation areas.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the name of the infrastructure that supports core business solutions in four
subcomponents
including people integration, information integration, process integration, and application
platform?
A. SAP NetWeaver
B. SAP Business Process Management
C. SAP Exchange Infrastructure
D. SAP Web AS
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which master data is required for a direct activity allocation? Note: There are 3 correct
answers to this
question.
A. Activity type
B. Cost center
C. Allocation cycle
D. Activity price
E. Secondary cost element
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which planning transactions create secondary costs on the receivers?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Plan assessment
B. Transfer of depreciations from Asset Accounting
C. Transfer of personnel cost from HR
D. Plan distribution
E. Activity input planning
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 What does the SAP Web AS provide?
A. Real-time data exchange with all SAP systems.
B. Master data harmonization cross SAP NetWeaver.
C. J2EE and ABAP in a single environment.
D. Storage of all transactional documents in one single database.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which data do you need to set up an accrual calculation with the percentage method?
Note: There are
2 correct answers to this question.
A. Accrual settlement rules with percentage method.
B. Secondary cost element (category 31) as accrual cost element.
C. Primary cost element (category 3) as accrual cost element.
D. Accrual allocation cycle with sender receiver segments.
E. Cost center or internal order (order category 2) as credit object.
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 In January, you posted a headcount of 10 employees as an actual statistical key figure
on a cost center.
The key figure is defined as fixed value. In July, the headcount is reduced to 8 employees for
the rest of
the year. What headcount do you have to post?
A. -2 in each period July to December.
B. -2 in period July.
C. 8 in each period July to December.
D. 8 in period July.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which information is transferred when you settle an Internal Order to costing-based
CO-PA?
A. Cost component split of the order cost.
B. Characteristic values of the settlement rule.
C. Variance categories of the internal order.
D. All information of the internal order master data.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is a typical sequence of steps in a Purchase to Pay process?
A. Purchase requisition -> Purchase order -> Goods receipt -> Invoice verification Payment
B. Purchase requisition -> Goods issue -> Purchase verification -> Invoice receipts Payment
C. Purchase requisition -> Goods verification -> Purchase receipts -> Invoice receipts
Payment
D. Purchase order -> Purchase requisition -> Goods receipt -> Invoice verification Payment
Answer: A

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NO.13 What does the planner profile in cost center accounting determine?
A. The available planning layouts.
B. The required planning sequence.
C. The available planning level.
D. The available planning methods (for example, top-down, forecast).
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer wants to allocate internal and external costs, based on statistical key
figure values, to the
receivers. Which method do you choose?
A. Assessment
B. Overhead calculation
C. Distribution
D. Settlement
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following are characteristics of Master Data? Note: There are 2 correct
answers to this
question.
A. Is typically assigned to organizational levels.
B. Must be assigned on client level.
C. Is used long-term for multiple business processes.
D. Cannot be changed after creation.
E. Is a template for transactional data.
Answer: A,C

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