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Code d'Examen: S90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the Service
Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is false.? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also composed by other
service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be composed.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract principle is not
followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the purchase of
legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.4 Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation and
SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms and
practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical (shortterm)
requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service-orientation is
required.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Each time our corporate development team makes a change to the service logic it is required to
publish a new version of the service contract. Our customers are complaining because their service
consumer programs become incompatible with new service contract versions and therefore no longer
work. Which of the following service-orientation principles is most likely to help us solve this on-going
problem? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness
C. Service Loose Coupling
D. Service Autonomy
Answer: C

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NO.6 The decoupling of a service contract from the service's underlying implementation results in a(n)
__________________ in the service's level of abstraction because __________________ service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly couple to the
underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding
D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A

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NO.7 Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle: "Services are
supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively __________________ and
__________________." Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.8 When applying the Service Loose Coupling design principle, we want to __________________ the
coupling of the service logic to the service contract because that allows the service contract to remain
__________________ from the service logic. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, decoupled
B. reduce, decoupled
C. increase, coupled
D. reduce, coupled
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract receives
a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract content to only what is
deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service's Service Level
Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be easily located by
those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles directly supports these
design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
Answer: C

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NO.10 The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or contract of a
service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction principle?
Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and its
underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering "loose state" in support of
runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an agnostic
abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship between the service
contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details, whereas
Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in relation to the service
implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of the other
depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the initial
delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a constant
emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather than
strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure that may
introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service compositions to
become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SOA Certified Professional   S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.15 Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of applying the
Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 21 Q&As

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NO.1 Cloud Service Consumer A invokes Cloud Service A from Cloud X (owned by Cloud Provider X) (1). To
fulfill the request from Cloud Service Consumer A, Cloud Service A needs to invoke Cloud Service B that
resides on Cloud Y (owned by Cloud Provider Y) (2). After completing its processing, Cloud Service B
sends a response to Cloud Service A (3). Cloud Service A verifies the response and then finally sends its
response to Cloud Service Consumer A (4).
The guaranteed availability of the Cloud Service A implementation is 95% and the guaranteed availability
of the Cloud Service B implementation is 95%. Which of the following statements accurately describes the
actual availability that Cloud Service Consumer A can receive based on the described scenario?
A. Because Cloud Service Consumer A's response message is processed by two separate cloud
services, the combined availability increases as follows:
1.- (1 - 0.95) X (1 - 0.95) = 0.9975 or 99.75%
B. Because Cloud Service A acts as both a cloud service and cloud service consumer in order to
process Cloud Service Consumer B's request message, Cloud Service A forms a dependency on
Cloud Service B. As a result, the combined availability decreases, as follows:
0.95 X 0.95 = 0.9025 or 90.25%
C. Cloud Service Consumer A benefits from redundant cloud service implementations, thereby
increasing the guaranteed availability as follows:
1.- (1 - (0.95 - 0.1))X (1 - (0.95 - 0.1)) = 0.9775 or 97.75%
D. As a result of the dependency formed by Cloud Service Aon Cloud Service B,the combined availability
decreases significantly as follows:
(0.95 X 0.95) - 0.1 = 0.8025 or 80.25%
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   C90-03A   C90-03A

NO.2 The cloud service owner of Cloud Service A is evaluating Clouds X, Y and Z to determine which cloud
environment can offer the greatest level of reliability. All three clouds are geographically dispersed across
three separate time zones. As a result, each cloud experiences usage peaks at different times. Based on
the metrics provided, the greater the usage of a cloud, the lower its reliability. When the cloud service
owner complains to Cloud Provider A (the owner of all three clouds) that none of the clouds provide an
adequate level of reliability, Cloud Provider A suggests a solution that increases resiliency.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a solution that can be used to fulfill the resiliency
requirements of Cloud Service A.?
A. Redundant implementations of Cloud Service A are deployed in all three clouds. The failover system
mechanism and a special type of automated scaling listener mechanism are implemented to establish a
system whereby one redundant Cloud Service A implementation will automatically take over from another.
B. A cloud balancing solution is established, whereby an automated scaling listener mechanism is
implemented on each cloud in such a way that every cloud can automatically scale out to another cloud.
As a result, if reliability problems occur on any one cloud, the subsequent requests will be scaled out to
another cloud in a manner that is transparent to cloud service consumers.
C. A failover system mechanism is implemented on Cloud X, which acts as the primary point of contact for
cloud serviceconsumers. Upon failure conditions occurring, the Cloud Service A implementation on Cloud
X automatically hands over control of current and future message requests from cloud service consumers
to Cloud Y. Cloud Y retains control of cloud serviceconsumer communication until the next failure
condition occurs, at which point it hands over control to Cloud Z. Finally, if a failure condition occurs in
Cloud Z. control is handed back to Cloud X.
D. A cloud balancing solution is established, whereby a resource replication mechanism is implemented
on each cloud. This allows Cloud Service A to be automatically replicated across cloud environments,
thereby enabling each implementation of Cloud Service A to take the place of another, whenever failure
conditions occur.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: L50-502
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer wants to run backups at any time of the day, using snapshots of production data, leaving
production systems fully online and available during backups. Which SVM application would be used to
achieve their online backup requirement?
A. multiMigrate
B. multiMirror
C. multiView
D. SVM volume management
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are implementing zoning for an SVM 5 environment. Which rule should you observe when zoning
servers with DPMs?
A. There should be no more than four paths per DPM to any one server.
B. There should be no more than two paths per DPM to any one server.
C. All servers and DPM front-end ports should reside in the same zone.
D. The servers should be zoned directly with the storage controllers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has an AIX high availability cluster multiprocessing (HACMP) environment and would like to
use SVM to provide additional storage to the cluster. Which consideration must be met to access the new
volumes?
A. The AIX light agent must be installed on all nodes.
B. The new volumes must be imported into a volume group.
C. The LSI failover driver must be installed on all nodes.
D. The MPIO driver must be disabled on all nodes.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your customer is looking for a high availability solution for company-critical data with an RPO of 0.
Periodically the customer would like to verify the integrity of replicated data. You configure two SVM
domains on two sites and use synchronous multiMirror between the two sites. What are two methods to
verify the data? (Choose two.)
A. Create a PiT on the synchronous multiMirror group, create a view on the second synchronous mirror
job PiT and assign it to a host.
B. Use multiCopy for one of the synchronous multiMirror jobs and then assign the destination volume to a
host.
C. Create a PiT on the second synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a
host.
D. Create a PiT on the first synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a host.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which storage arrays can be migrated under SVM 5 control.?
A. SAS storage array
B. iSCSI storage array
C. FC storage array
D. Infiniband storage array
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has an environment that includes existing VMware disks that must be imported into SVM.
VMware marks a signature on the volumes which identifies the controller WWNN and LUN ID. Which
statement describes what you need to take into account when migrating the VMware disks under SVM
control?
A. VMware will not resignature automatically.
B. VMware will present the same LUN ID after importing.
C. VMware will modify the DPM WWNN to match the array WWNN.
D. VMware resignaturing must be set correctly.
Answer: D

LSI   L50-502   L50-502

NO.7 A financial institution has an Oracle application that is critical to its business. Which three factors will
enable you to assess how to provide high availability and recovery? (Choose three.)
A. application recovery time objective
B. application recovery point objective
C. distance between data centers
D. number of network adapters
E. distance between servers
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 You are trying to determine the optimal solution to meet the data recovery needs of a customer. What
will provide your customer with the smallest recovery time objective and array failure protection?
A. asynchronous multiMirror
B. multiView
C. multiCopy
D. synchronous multiMirror
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your customer has recently begun using hourly PiTs for rapid application recovery. The desire is to
implement a data retention plan where each hourly PiT is kept on disk until 8:00 PM. Four weeks?worth
the customer would like to keep a daily snapshot copy of the data for seven days. Also the customer
wants to keep four weeks worth of weekly views on a secondary, low cost array. The solution should
minimize disk utilization on the primary array. Which three tasks would you implement to accomplish this
goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a multiCopy of the application data and keep seven copies.
B. Create a View on the most recent PiT each night at 8:00 PM and retain for seven days.
C. Create a multiCopy of the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
D. Purge PiTs on the source volume at 8:00 PM to keep seven PiTs.
E. Use multiMigrate to move the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 A retailer with a SQL database must pull statistics from a production database but would like to do so
without interfering with production work. The statistics are required by three different departments. Which
two methods could be used to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Use multiMigrate on the database volume with one job and assign the destination volume to the three
hosts.
B. Use multiMirror asynchronous on the database volume with three jobs and assign the jobs to the three
hosts.
C. Use multiView on the database volume to create a PiT; create three views for that PiT and assign it to
the three hosts.
D. Use multiCopy on the database volume with three jobs and assign each destination volume to the
three hosts.
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 You have a disaster recovery scenario where newly created SVM Views will be presented to an ESX
server or ESX cluster at a secondary site. To avoid importing the views as new volumes, which ESX
advanced setting should be enabled?
A. port retry
B. resignature
C. device reset
D. LUN reset
Answer: B

LSI   L50-502   L50-502

NO.12 You are deploying ESX servers with SVM. You have followed the recommended best practice and
have designed your front-end SAN to have redundant fabrics and allowed for both HBA initiator ports to
see both DPMs. You have created SVM volumes and have presented them to your ESX servers. After
performing an HBA rescan from an ESX server, how many paths should be available to each LUN?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer is using SVM to provide five volumes to a Windows 2008 server. These volumes have
been converted to dynamic disks and striped using the OS. Which consideration should be met if the
customer would like to use PiTs and views to access this data from another server?
A. The data cannot be accessed from another host.
B. multiMigrate should be used to migrate the data to a single volume.
C. A consistency group should be defined for the five volumes.
D. The standard agent must be used to access the view.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your customer would like to consolidate multiple storage arrays which are currently under-utilized. The
SAN is not currently managed by SVM. The customer desires the minimal impact to their applications.
Which two statements describe the process to consolidate the arrays under SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Import existing LUNs into SVM pools.
B. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array.
C. Use asynchronous mirror to move the volumes to the desired array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array and remove SVM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 A customer would like to implement SVM into their current storage environment and has asked you to
provide a detailed overview of both the SVM and DPM architectures. Where would you suggest that they
locate the required information?
A. Host Compatibility Matrix
B. Deployment Guide for SVM 4
C. SVM User Guide
D. Configuration Knowledge Base for SVM 5
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: GISP
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Information Security Professional)
Questions et réponses: 659 Q&As

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NO.1 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Role-Based Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about a fiber-optic cable are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
B. It can transmit undistorted signals over great distances.
C. It has eight wires twisted into four pairs.
D. It uses light pulses for signal transmission.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 When no anomaly is present in an Intrusion Detection, but an alarm is generated, the response is known
as __________.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. True negative
D. True positive
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about the bridge are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It filters traffic based on IP addresses.
B. It forwards broadcast packets.
C. It assigns a different network address per port.
D. It filters traffic based on MAC addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which of the following are the benefits of information classification for an organization?
A. It helps identify which information is the most sensitive or vital to an organization.
B. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
C. It helps identify which protections apply to which information.
D. It helps reduce the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which of the following are methods used for authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Smart card
B. Biometrics
C. Username and password
D. Magnetic stripe card
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web
browser receives information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser
settings will Sam use to accomplish this?
A. Proxy server
B. Security
C. Cookies
D. Certificate
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about role-based access control (RBAC) model is true?
A. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization.
B. In this model, the permissions are uniquely assigned to each user account.
C. In this model, the same permission is assigned to each user account.
D. In this model, the users can access resources according to their seniority.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following terms refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access?
A. Auditing
B. Recovery
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following heights of fence deters only casual trespassers?
A. 3 to 4 feet
B. 2 to 2.5 feet
C. 8 feet
D. 6 to 7 feet
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following steps can be taken to protect laptops and data they hold?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use slot locks with cable to connect the laptop to a stationary object.
B. Keep inventory of all laptops including serial numbers.
C. Harden the operating system.
D. Encrypt all sensitive data.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following attacks involves multiple compromised systems to attack a single target?
A. Brute force attack
B. DDoS attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Replay attack
Answer: B

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a network that consists of 200
client computers and ten database servers. One morning, you find that a hacker is accessing
unauthorized data on a database server on the network. Which of the following actions will you take to
preserve the evidences?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Prevent a forensics experts team from entering the server room.
B. Preserve the log files for a forensics expert.
C. Prevent the company employees from entering the server room.
D. Detach the network cable from the database server.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 Which of the following is the most secure authentication method?
A. Certificate-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Integrated Windows authentication
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following types of attacks slows down or stops a server by overloading it with requests?
A. Vulnerability attack
B. Impersonation attack
C. Network attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: D

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NO.16 Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
Service Set Identifiers (SSIDs) are case sensitive text strings that have a maximum length of_______
characters.
A. 32
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements about Digest authentication are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as clear text, rather than as a has value.
B. Digest authentication is used by wireless LANs, which follow the IEEE 802.11 standard.
C. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as a hash value, rather than as clear
text.
D. Digest authentication is a more secure authentication method as compared to Basic authentication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following is the best way of protecting important data against virus attack?
A. Updating the anti-virus software regularly.
B. Taking daily backup of data.
C. Using strong passwords to log on to the network.
D. Implementing a firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure TELNET session over TCP/IP?
A. SSL
B. PGP
C. IPSEC
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Install a RAID system
B. Use data encryption
C. Install and use a tape backup unit
D. Install UPS systems on all important devices
Answer: A,C

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NO.21 Which of the following statements about Switched Multimegabit Data Service (SMDS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a logical connection between two devices.
B. It uses fixed-length (53-byte) packets to transmit information.
C. It supports speeds of 1.544 Mbps over Digital Signal level 1 (DS-1) transmission facilities.
D. It is a high-speed WAN networking technology used for communication over public data networks
Answer: C,D

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NO.22 Which of the following statements about DMZ are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is an anti-virus software that scans the incoming traffic on an internal network.
B. It is the boundary between the Internet and a private network.
C. It contains company resources that are available on the Internet, such as Web servers and FTP
servers.
D. It contains an access control list (ACL).
Answer: B,C

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NO.23 Which of the following refers to encrypted text.?
A. Plaintext
B. Cookies
C. Hypertext
D. Ciphertext
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following functions are performed by a firewall?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It hides vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet.
B. It logs traffic to and from the private network.
C. It enhances security through various methods, including packet filtering, circuit-level filtering, and
application filtering.
D. It blocks unwanted traffic.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.25 Which of the following is a remote access protocol that supports encryption?
A. PPP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SLIP
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network?
A. DNS poisoning
B. Keystroke logging
C. Mail bombing
D. ARP poisoning
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following statements about smurf is true?
A. It is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
B. It is a UDP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
C. It is a denial of service (DoS) attack that leaves TCP ports open.
D. It is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following protocols is used to verify the status of a certificate?
A. CEP
B. HTTP
C. OSPF
D. OCSP
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which of the following policies is set by a network administrator to allow users to keep their emails and
documents for a fixed period of time?
A. Retention policy
B. Password policy
C. Audit policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following are used to suppress paper or wood fires?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Water
B. Kerosene
C. CO2
D. Soda acid
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: GSSP-NET-CSHARP
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer - C#.NET)
Questions et réponses: 550 Q&As

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NO.1 Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its
application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt
all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D

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NO.2 Session variables can be any valid __________.
A. .NET Framework type
B. Integer type
C. SessionStateItemCollection object
D. Object type
Answer: A

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NO.3 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently
finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only
for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the
computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
Answer: B

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NO.4 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application
development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to
open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust
permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections:
SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert();
A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open
the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the
following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D

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NO.5 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You create an application for the company. You need to validate the
phone number passed to a class as a parameter in the application. Which of the following is the most
effective way to verify that the format of the data matches a phone number.?
A. Regular expressions
B. Nested If statements
C. Use the String.Length property
D. A try/catch block
Answer: A

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NO.6 Andrew works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. The company's network has a Web server
that hosts the company's Web site. Andrew wants to enhance the security of the Web site by
implementing Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Which of the following types of encryption does SSL use?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Symmetric
B. Secret
C. IPSec
D. Asymmetric
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 You can use LINQ in an ASP.NET application through the LinqDataSource control, the __________
control, or by creating LINQ queries.
A. ADO.NET DataSet
B. ObjectDataSource
C. SqlDataSource
D. XmlDataSource
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following session and instancing modes will you set if you require a sessionfull binding
and want to create a new instance object for each client request?
A. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerSession.
B. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to Single.
C. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
D. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In .NET Framework 3.5, you can create and access values that persist from one application session to
another. What are these values called?
A. Objects
B. Settings
C. Properties
D. Attributes
Answer: B

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NO.10 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework
3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos should be
accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can be easily
maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored on a SQL server
database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework
3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code segments will
you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error.htm">
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode="Off">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode="On">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode="Off" defaultRedirect="Error.htm"> <error statusCode="404"
redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
Answer: A

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NO.12 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an
application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company.
You are using the CompareInfo class for culture-sensitive string comparisons. You write the following
code in the application:
String s1 = "C rtify";
String s2 = "c rtify";
String s3 = "c rtify";
You need to compare the s1 string with the s2 string and ensure that the string comparison must ignore
case. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.IgnoreCase));
B. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.None));
C. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.Ordinal));
D. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.OrdinalIgnoreCase));
Answer: A

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NO.13 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5.
You create a Web form in the application that permits users to provide personal information. You add a
DropDownList control to the Web form to retrieve the residential status of users. The default item that the
DropDownList control displays is the "Select Country" option. You have to ensure that users select a
country other than the default option. Which of the following validation controls should you use to
accomplish this task?
A. RangeValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. CustomValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
Answer: B

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NO.14 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle events
throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to inspect incoming
and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What will be the correct order to
create the HTTP module?
A.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the code shown
below.
string str1 = "ABC";
string str2 = "u";
str2 += "Certify";
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False False False
B. False True False
C. True True True
D. True False True
Answer: D

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NO.16 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application and use it to create code
access security policies. Which of the following tools will you use to examine and modify code access
security policies from a batch file?
A. Tlbimp.exe
B. GacUtil.exe
C. Sn.exe
D. Caspol.exe
E. StoreAdm.exe
Answer: D

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NO.17 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists of three
Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the following
requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the following
configurations will you use?
A. <sessionState mode="StateServer"/>
B. <sessionState mode="InProc"/>
C. <sessionState mode="Custom"/>
D. <sessionState mode="SQLServer"/>
Answer: D

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NO.18 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application
using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to
complete a particular action, the following error message comes out:
Unable to find assembly 'myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral,
PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95'.
You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced
component that was registered by using the following command:
regsvcs.exe myservices.dll
You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no
exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications fold er.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that
will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that
only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the
employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database
named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the
following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following techniques is used to transmit passwords during authentication?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Salted Hash
D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: adwords-display
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Display Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

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NO.1 Andy is a consultant to a business that wants to advertise in the Google Content Network. He
recommends that the business owner use the contextual targeting for his ads. What is the contextual
targeting?
A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products for sale
so his ads will show on related Websites.
C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is one of the reserved media placements available on YouTube?
A. Play rate
B. Partner Watch Pages
C. Display ad builder
D. AdWords Auction
Answer: B

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NO.3 Jan has a Website selling shoes and socks online. She would like to use Google AdWords'
costperacquisition approach for her ads. If Jan uses this approach what must she also do?
A. Jan must also use Google Checkout.
B. Jan must be a preferred Google vendor.
C. Jan must use the Conversion Optimizer.
D. Jan must set her CPC maximum bids to a minimum of 25 cents.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following tools will you use to identify potential ad group themes for your display
campaigns?
A. Google analytics
B. Google trends
C. Wonder wheel
D. Display ad builder
Answer: C

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NO.5 In the Google Content Network, there are three bidding strategies that a Google AdWords advertiser
may use. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three bidding strategies in the
Google Content Network?
A. Cost-per-acquisition bidding
B. Cost-per-month bidding
C. Cost-per-click bidding
D. Cost-per-thousand bidding
Answer: B

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NO.6 Examine the image given below:
What Google Tool is being used in the image above?
A. Google Wonder Wheel
B. Google Rich Media Ad Builder
C. Google Ad Builder
D. Google Ads Diagnostic Tool
Answer: C

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NO.7 Bob is reviewing his Google AdWords for the Google Content Network, which has been running for the
past sixty days. Bob is interested in the view-through conversion tracking. What is viewthrough
conversion tracking.?
A. It's the number of conversions that have happened after a user saw, but didn't click, Bob's ad.
B. It's the number of conversions that have happened from a video ad.
C. It's the conversion rate for ads in the Google Content Network.
D. It's the cost of conversions that have happened after a user saw Bob's ad online.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Consider the image shown below:
What will happen if you click on the "history of soccer" link in the image?
A. You'll be taken to the first page with the keyword "history of soccer" in the Google search r esults.
B. Another line will branch out from "soccer" with related links to the "history of soccer" link.
C. The "soccer" wheel will fade to the background and a new wheel called "history of soccer" will be
created.
D. Google AdWords will display ads related to the "history of soccer" for this keyword.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Henry has created a video that he'd like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a
demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video
advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Overlay video ad
B. In-stream video ad
C. Click-to-play video ad
D. Video placement ad
Answer: C

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NO.10 Google makes many recommendations for Google AdWords users for direct response campaigns.
One of the recommendations Google makes is to implement cost-per-click bidding so that you only pay
when people click your ad. What other reason is valid for using the cost-per-click bidding?
A. If you want to be included in Google Content Network, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
B. If you are creating a display ad, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
C. If you want to include video overlays ads, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
D. If you want to use the Conversion Optimizer tool, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Jeffrey has an online store that caters to collectors of antique pins based on comic book characters.
His audience is small, but dedicated. If you were advising Jeffrey about his online advertising sales, which
of the following would be the best strategy considering Jeffrey's audience?
A. Use the Google Content Network for niche placements.
B. Use the Google Content Network with automatic placements based on hundreds of comic-book based
keywords.
C. Use Google AdWords for search marketing.
D. Use Google AdWords with hundreds of comic-book based keywords.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on a particular customer action,
such as leads or purchases?
A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Manual CPC bidding
D. Automatic CPC bidding
Answer: A

Google   certification adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.13 Amy is managing a Google AdWords campaign for her company. Her manager has asked Amy to
create a performance report for the overall campaign performance. What steps will Amy take to generate
this performance report?
A. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report for All Campaigns, and then she'll
select the Campaign Performance option.
B. Amy will click Reporting, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
C. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
D. Amy will click Opportunities, then Keywords, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the
Campaign Performance option.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following tabs will you use to see and edit details of all the ad groups in your AdWords
account?
A. Ad groups
B. Campaign
C. Statistics
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.15 Google has some very specific recommendations for planning a display campaign. According to Google,
what is the top recommendation for planning an effective display campaign?
A. Set your bids and budget.
B. Identify your goals.
C. Find your target audience.
D. Create your custom display ad.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Allen is managing ads for his company and he'd like to include the ads in the Google Content Network.
Where does Allen configure automatic placements of ads in the Google Content Network for his
campaigns?C
A. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
B. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Networks" tab.
C. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Ad Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
D. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Opportunities" tab.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Mary Jane wants to use the view-through conversion tracking feature in Google AdWords. How long
must Mary Jane's ad run before she can use this feature accurately?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 24 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: A

Google   certification adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.18 Fred is a Google AdWords consultant for his client. He is explaining to his client that there are actually
three ways to add managed placements to an ad group. Which one of the following is NOT one of the
three methods Fred can use to add managed placements to an ad group?
A. Manually adding
B. Browsing the Web for placements with the Google AdWords toolbar
C. Copying from the automatic placement table
D. Using the Placement tool
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is a Google property where display ads are eligible to appear?
A. MSN
B. YouTube
C. Wonder wheel
D. Yahoo
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are managing a Google AdWords campaign for a company. You launch a new display campaign.
In the first week of the campaign launch, you noticed a large number of clicksbut no conversions. Which
of the following actions can you perform to resolve the issue?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Increase bidding for successful sites.
B. Verify that your conversion code is set up correctly.
C. Evaluate performance of campaign regularly.
D. Check the ad creative and the landing page to make sure they are well matched.
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: ACMP
Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.0)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the diagram provided for this question,
wireless User A is associated with the Aruba AP. The Aruba controller is configured to perform L2
switching.
What will be the wireless user's default gateway?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which log type should be enabled to troubleshoot IPSec authentication issues on Aruba
Controllers?
A. Security Logs
B. Management Logs
C. Wireless Logs
D. IDS Logs
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.4 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports destination network address
translation (dst-nat).
Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?
A. source the IP addresses of users to specific IP address
B. redirect HTTP sessions to Captive Portal
C. redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller
D. provide a telnet connection to the controller
Answer: B

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NO.5 When an Aruba 6000 controller has two M3 modules installed, for which uses may the modules be
used? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. hot standby operations
B. VRRP backup
C. higher AP density per switch chassis
D. Active-Active masters
Answer: B,C

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NO: 6 Referring to the above screen capture,
which tab tells you which licenses are installed on the controller?
A. Controller Summary
B. All Wlan Controllers
C. Process Logs
D. Inventory
Answer: D

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Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 7 Which method is NOT supported to provision an Aruba thin AP?
A. Telnet directly to AP
B. SSH to the AP's controller
C. Web interface to the AP's controller
D. Console to AP
Answer: A

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NO: 8 The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B

Aruba   ACMP examen   certification ACMP
Topic 2, Volume B
NO: 9 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. The controller must have a public IP address.
Answer: B

Aruba   ACMP   ACMP examen
Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 10 When configuring a server group containing 3 servers, a customer chooses 'fail through mode'.
What other feature has to be enabled on the controller for this to work?
A. Machine authentication
B. EAP Termination
C. Server group fall through mode
D. MAC authentication
Answer: B

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