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Code d'Examen: 4A0-103
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multiprotocol Label Switching)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 Click on the exhibit button below.
With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:
-The protected LSP path is R1-R2-R3.
-All links are of equal cost.
Which of the following statements is true? (Choose two)
A. Router R1 is the LSP originator and is also a PLR.
B. With one-to-one link or node protection, the detour LSP path is R1-R4-R5-R2-R3.
C. With one-to-one link or node protection, the detour LSP path is R1-R4-R5-R3.
D. If the R2-R3 link fails, router R3 becomes a PLR
E. None of the nodes can be protected with FRR.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Assume that, on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, an LSP is configured with one-to-one FRR and node
protection. Which of the following statements are FALSE? (Choose two)
A. Each PLR signals a detour LSP that avoids the downstream node. If the downstream node cannot be
avoided, a detour LSP that avoids the downstream link is signaled.
B. The detour LSP can take one or more hops before merging back on the protected LSP.
C. The merge point of the protected LSP must be the next-next-hop node
D. The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path
message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish detour LSPs.
E. The label recording desired flag must be set in the session attribute object in order for the PLR to know
what label to swap when using the detour LSP.
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Click on the exhibit button below.
Consider the following:
-Routers R1 and R4 are in Area 1.
-Routers R4 and R5 in Area 0.
-Routers R5 and R3 are in Area 2.
To support LDP-over-RSVP tunnels between routers R1 and R3 over path R1-R4-R5-R3, with which
routers will router R5 require targeted sessions? (Choose two)
A. Router R1
B. Router R4
C. Router R2
D. Router R3
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which command can be used to verify the LDP settings for label distribution and retention?
A. show router ldp default
B. show router ldp parameters
C. show router ldp settings
D. show router mpls settings
E. show router mpls label-options
Answer: B

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NO.5 You wish to advertise LDP labels for all local networks; which is the most effective policy statement to
use?
A. from prefix-list direct
B. match local
C. from protocol direct
D. match protocol direct
E. from protocol local
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the configuration below, what is the system ID of the destination node?
A. 10.32.1.2
B. 10.1.478
C. 1048.1.1
D. Cannot tell from this configuration
E. 10.1.2.2
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the significance of receiving a packet with the bottom MPLS label S bit set to 1?
A. It results in forwarding based on the next packet header.
B. It indicates that the label is the bottom of the MPLS label stack.
C. It indicates that the label is the top of the MPLS label stack.
D. Any LSR that receives an S bit set to 1 must discard the packet.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click on the exhibit button below.
Assuming that LSP R1-R2-R3 requests the default fast reroute configuration, which router becomes a
DMP for the detour tunnels?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: E

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NO.9 What is the common usage of the MPLS EXP bits?
A. Each implementation can use them as they see fit.
B. They are used to carry the Ethertype value.
C. They are used to carry the TTL value.
D. They are used to carry QoS classification.
E. They are used to carry fragmentation flag information
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following indicates the path over which an LSP's tail end router will return an RSVP RESV
message?
A. The IGP FIB.
B. The Reservation State Block (RSB)
C. The Path State Block (PSB)
D. The opaque database.
Answer: C

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NO.11 During node protection signaling, the PLR knows the address of the MP from which of the following
methods?
A. The PLR issues a RSVP path message to the destination router to request the address of the MP.
B. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the ERO.
C. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the RRO
D. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the targeted RSVP hello message.
E. The PLR does not need to know the address of the MP.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following statements best describe MPLS fast reroute characteristics? (Choose two)
A. Fast reroute requires you to manually define detour paths.
B. Fast reroute provides path protection close to the failure point
C. Fast reroute performs automatic path calculation and signaling.
D. Fast reroute protects both primary and secondary paths.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which of the following is defined by the following statement? All label mappings received from all peer
LSRs are saved.
A. Conservative label retention
B. Liberal label retention.
C. Downstream on demand.
D. Downstream unsolicited.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following message types does RSVP use to set up an LSP? (Choose two)
A. Path message
B. iLER message
C. Resv message
D. LSP setup call request
E. eLER message
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements regarding LSP path configuration are true? (Choose three)
A. The path must include at least one hop.
B. The path may be used multiple times in a single LSP.
C. The path may comprise loose hop entries only.
D. The path must define the LSP's tail end.
E. The path may be used for multiple LSPs.
Answer: C,E

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NO.16 Router R3 signals an LSP, reserving 1Gbps bandwidth on a 10Gbps link. RSVP configuration limits
reservable bandwidth to 20 percent on the egress interface. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The egress RSVP interface has 80 percent bandwidth unreserved.
B. LSPs can reserve an additional 9.9 Gbps bandwidth on this RSVP interface.
C. The head end reserves 100Mbps for the LSP
D. The egress RSVP interface has 1 Gbps bandwidth unreserved.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the output below, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three)
A. A packet arriving with label 131066 and destined for prefix 10.10.10.243/32 will be forwarded out
interface 1/1/4, with label 131070.
B. LDP ECMP is enabled.
C. The router ¯ s sys t e m add r ess i s 10 . 10 . 10 . 242 / 32 .
D. There are multiple LSPs to reach FEC 10.10.10.244/32.
E. The router cannot receive any unlabeled packets destined for prefix 10.10.10 223/32.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 In MPLS, labels are distributed in the opposite direction of the data flow.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements best describes downstream unsolicited label distribution?
A. An LER may answer requests for label mappings immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from
the next-hop.
B. An LER may advertise label mappings to all peers for which it might be a next-hop for a given FEC.
C. An LER propagates a label mapping downstream for a FEC. only if it has a label mapping for the FEC
next-hop.
D. An LER will only distribute a label for a FEC when it has been requested to do so.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click on the exhibit button below.
With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:
-Two protected LSPs with the path R1-R2-R3
-Both LSPs enable facility bypass and link protection.
When router R1 is the PLR, which router becomes the MP?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 3I0-008
Nom d'Examen: ACI (ACI DEALING CERTIFICATE)
Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

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NO.1 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the ISO code for platinum
A.XAU
B.XAG
C.XPT
D.XPD
ANSWER: c

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NO.2 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Taking collateral to hedge the credit risk on a counterparty means that you have:
A.Eliminated credit risk
B.Eliminated market risk
C.Taken a guarantee from the issuer of the collateral
D.Taken on market, legal and operational risks
ANSWER: d

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NO.3 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following is issued by auction?
A.Treasury bill
B.CD
C.BA
D.USCP
ANSWER: a

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NO.4 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following currencies is quoted on an actual/365 basis for the calculation of interest on
interbank deposits in London?
A.EUR
B.JPY
C.GBP
D.CHF
ANSWER: c

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NO.5 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Written confirmation is a function that can be done by:
A.Any dealer as long as he/she is not a party to the trade.
B.Staff in the back-office.
C.Staff in the dealing room who are not dealing.
D.Any staff outside the dealing room.
ANSWER: b

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NO.6 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The 180-day GBP/USD rate is bid 62 and the 90-day GBP/USD rate is bid 29.
What is the bid rate for 120 days, assuming straight-line interpolation?
A.33
B.42
C.27
D.40
ANSWER: d

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NO.7 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The extension of an off-market rate could have the following implications:
A.An unauthorised extension of credit to the counterparty.
B.Deferring a loss to a future date.
C.Deferring an income to a future date.
D.All of the above.
ANSWER: d

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NO.8 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the amount of the principal plus interest due at maturity on a 1-month (31-day) deposit of EUR 50
million placed at 3.67%?
A.EUR 50,152,916.70
B.EUR 50,155,849.30
C.EUR 50,158,013.90
D.EUR 50,161,888.90
ANSWER: c

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NO.9 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Although The Model Code discourages the extension of forward FX contracts at their historic rates, one of
the conditions required for this is:
A.Prior management approval has been sought.
B.They are executed within six months.
C.They are extended for not more than one year.
D.All of the above.
ANSWER: a

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NO.10 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Lending for 3 months and borrowing for 6 months creates a 3x6 forward-forward deposit. The cost of that
deposit is called:
A.Break-even rate
B.Implied forward rate
C.Forward-forward rate
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

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NO.11 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The seller of a floor:
A.Receives compensation if a reference interest rate falls below an agreed level
B.Pays compensation if a reference interest rate falls below an agreed level
C.Receives compensation if a reference interest rate rises above an agreed level
D.Pays compensation if a reference interest rate rises above an agreed level
ANSWER: b

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NO.12 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
A 1-month (30-day) USCP with a face value of USD 5 million is quoted at a rate of discount of 2.31%.
How much is the paper worth?
A.USD 4,884,500.00
B.USD 4,990,375.00
C.USD 4,990.506.85
D.USD 4,990,393.49
ANSWER: b

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NO.13 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Covered interest arbitrage is possible when:
A.The low interest rate currency depreciates
B.There is a large swing in the spot rate
C.The values of the forward points and of the interest rate differential between two currencies diverge
D.The interest rate differential widens rather than narrows
ANSWER: c

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NO.14 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following will tend to have the higher yield?
A.Treasury bill
B.Repo against Treasury bill collateral
C.They have the same yield
D.Cannot say
ANSWER: b

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NO.15 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What are the secondary market proceeds of a CD with a face value of EUR 5 million and a coupon of 3%
that was issued at par for 182 days and is now trading at 3% but with only 7 days remaining to maturity?
A.EUR 4,997,085.03
B.EUR 5,000,000.00
C.EUR 5,071,086.45
D.EUR 5,072,874.16
ANSWER: d

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NO.16 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
In the international market, a FRA in USD is usually settled with reference to:
A.BBA LIBOR
B.Fed funds
C.ISDA LIBOR
D.EURIBOR
ANSWER: a

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NO.17 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Prior to expiration, an in-the-money option has:
A.Intrinsic value but no time value
B.Time value but no intrinsic value
C.Both time value and intrinsic value
D.Neither time value nor intrinsic value
ANSWER: c

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NO.18 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If EUR/USD is 1.1025-28 and the 6-month swap is 112.50/113, what is the 6-month outright price?
A.1.1380-1.11405
B.1.11375-1.1141
C.1.09125-1.0915
D.None of these
ANSWER: b

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NO.19 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
One of your major customers is visiting your bank and wishes to meet you and see the dealing room.
What is the Model Code recommendation?
A.There is no problem.
B.There is no problem provided the visitor is a member of your customers management and not a dealer
for the customer.
C.There is no problem with a short, one-off visit approved by management.
D.Non-treasury personnel and visitors should not be allowed into the dealing room.
ANSWER: c

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NO.20 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
In case of a default on a repo by the seller:
A.The buyer can liquidate the collateral
B.The buyer has to liquidate the collateral
C.The buyer cannot liquidate the collateral until the seller is declared insolvent
D.A court is appointed to decide what happens to the collateral
ANSWER: a

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NO.21 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The position delta of an in-the-money short put option is:
A.Between -0.5 and -1
B.-0.5
C.Between +0.5 and +1
D.+0.5
ANSWER: c

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NO.22 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If a counterparty's name is not acceptable to a lending bank, that bank:
A.Can revise the rate according to his credit position for the counterparty.
B.Should not revise the rate.
C.Can revise the rate but only with the consent of senior management.
D.Can revise the rate according to the credit rating of the counterparty
ANSWER: b

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NO.23 These are all the pirctures which this dumps will use. When you meet the questions, you can refer to
them by yourself.
A
B
C
D
E
F

NO.24 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
You have done the following deals in spot USD/JPY:
Sold USD 5.0 million at 130.60
Bought USD 3.5 million at 130.20
Bought USD 2.0 million at 130.50
Sold USD 2.0 million at 130.55
What is your net position and average rate?
A.Short USD 1.5 million at 130.46
B.Long USD 1.5 million at 130.46
C.Short USD 1.5 million at 131.60
D.Long USD 1.5 million at 131.60
ANSWER: c

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NO.25 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What are some of the major objectives of The Model Code?
A.To clarify the roles of dealers, brokers and customers
B.To promote a high level of ethical, professional behaviour
C.To act as a guide in the absence of government regulation
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

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NO.26 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
It is now permissible in most markets for brokers to be owned by banks and other principals. Where there
is shared management, or a shareholding or other investment in a broker by a counterparty:
A.The broker is not obligated to reveal the connection provided Chinese Walls are in place.
B.The broker is not obligated to reveal the connection in the professional market.
C.The broker should advise the other counterparty of the connection.
D.The matter is covered in the Model Code.
ANSWER: c

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NO.27 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Making interest rate swap transactions subject to agreement on documentation:
A.Is recommended where the complications of the transaction warrant the practice.
B.Is strictly forbidden.
C.Is considered bad practice.
D.Must have senior management approval.
ANSWER: c

ACI   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.28 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Voice-brokers in spot FX are remunerated with:
A.Commission paid by both parties at rates agreed beforehand
B.A fee paid by the seller
C.Bid/offer spread
D.A share of the bid/offer spread
ANSWER: a

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NO.29 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the Overnight Index for GBP?
A.SONIA
B.STINA
C.LIBOR
D.EONIA
ANSWER: a

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NO.30 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Four banks provide you with quotes in CHF/SEK. Which is the best price for you to buy SEK?
A.5.5825
B.5.5820
C.5.5815
D.5.5830
ANSWER: d

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Code d'Examen: EN0-001
Nom d'Examen: ARM (ARM Accredited engineer)
Questions et réponses: 210 Q&As

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NO.1 Printf statements could be used to achieve which of the following debug tasks?
A. Observe changes to a local variable in a function
B. Capture a real-time trace of program execution
C. Debug boot code, before a call to the C main() function
D. Stop the processor at an interesting location in the code
Answer: A

certification ARM   EN0-001   EN0-001 examen   certification EN0-001

NO.2 In a Cortex-A9 processor, when the Memory Management Unit (MMU) is disabled, which of
the following statements is TRUE? (VA is the virtual address and PA is the physical address)
A. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions and data are not cached
B. VA! = PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
C. VA == PA; Address translations take place; data may be cached but not instructions
D. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
Answer: D

ARM   EN0-001   certification EN0-001

NO.3 A program running on a development board that is connected to a host using a debugger can
access a file on the host by using:
A. Memory mapping
B. Semihosting
C. Polling
D. Virtual I/O
Answer: B

ARM   EN0-001   EN0-001   EN0-001 examen

NO.4 In which type of storage will the compiler preferentially place frequently accessed variables?
A. Stack
B. Heap
C. Registers
D. Hard disk
Answer: C

certification ARM   EN0-001   EN0-001   EN0-001

NO.5 When the processor is executing in Thumb state, which of the following statements is correct
about the values stored in R15?
A. Bits[31:16] are duplicated with bits[15:0]
B. The PC value is stored in bits[31:1] and bit[0] is treated as zero
C. The PC value is stored in bits[31:16] and bits[15:0] are undefined
D. The PC value is stored in bits[15:0] and bits[31:16] are undefined
Answer: B

certification ARM   certification EN0-001   certification EN0-001

NO.6 In the Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC), when an interrupt is requested, but is not yet being
handled, it is in which of the following states?
A. Inactive
B. Active
C. Pending
D. Edge-triggered
Answer: C

certification ARM   certification EN0-001   EN0-001 examen   certification EN0-001

NO.7 When setting the initial location of the stack pointer and the base address of the heap, the
ARM EABI requires that the:
A. Base address of the heap must be the same as the initial stack pointer.
B. Stack pointer must be 8-byte aligned.
C. Heap must be in external RAM.
D. Initial stack pointer must be the lowest addressable memory location.
Answer: B

ARM   certification EN0-001   certification EN0-001   certification EN0-001

NO.8 A standard performance benchmark is being run on a single core ARM v7-A processor. The
performance results reported are significantly lower than expected. Which of the following options
is a possible explanation?
A. L1 Caches and branch prediction are disabled
B. The Embedded Trace Macrocell (ETM) is disabled
C. The Memory Management Unit (MMU) is enabled
D. The Snoop Control Unit (SCU) is disabled
Answer: A

ARM   EN0-001 examen   EN0-001 examen   EN0-001 examen

NO.9 What view in a debugger displays the order in which functions were called?
A. The Call Stack view
B. The Memory view
C. The Registers view
D. The Variables view
Answer: A

ARM   EN0-001   EN0-001   EN0-001 examen   EN0-001

NO.10 A simple system comprises of the following memory map:
Flash - 0x0 to 0x7FFF
RAM - 0x10000 to 0X17FFF
When conforming to the ABI, which of the following is a suitable initial value for the stack pointer?
A. Top address of RAM (0x18000)
B. Top address of flash (0x8000)
C. Bottom address of RAM (0x10000)
D. Bottom address of flash (0x0000)
Answer: A

ARM   EN0-001   EN0-001 examen   certification EN0-001

NO.11 In an ARMv7-A processor, which control register is used to enable the Memory Management
Unit (MMU)?
A. The ACTLR
B. The SCTLR
C. The TTBCR
D. The CONTEXTIDR
Answer: B

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12. A simple method of measuring the performance of an application is to record the execution
time using the clock on the wall or a wristwatch.
When is this method INAPPROPRIATE?
A. When executing the software using a simulation model
B. When the processor is a Cortex-R4
C. When instruction tracing is enabled
D. When the processor is not executing instructions from cache
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CGAP
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Government Auditing Professional)
Questions et réponses: 327 Q&As

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NO.1 One mechanism to help ensure the proper application of audit standards is through
____________. The purpose of _______________ is to provide feedback to management on the
effectiveness of the quality control policies and procedures of an organization:
A. An external quality review process
B. An internal quality review process
C. Organizational review process
D. Audit review process
Answer: B

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NO.2 The IIA has developed the Professional Practices Framework (PPF). In general, a framework
provides a structural blueprint of how a body of knowledge and guidance fits together. As a
coherent system, it facilitates all of the following to a discipline or profession EXCEPT:
A. Communication skills
B. Application of concepts
C. Consistent development
D. Interpretation and methodologies
Answer: A

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NO.3 Standards must be reviewed and applied appropriately during the conduct of an audit.
Following are some illustrations of situations that may arise during the course of an audit EXCEPT:
A. Qualification
B. Independence
C. Communication
D. Coordination
Answer: D

IIA examen   certification IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP examen   IIA-CGAP examen

NO.4 A __________________________ letter is usually developed with either a qualified or
unqualified opinion. Obviously a qualified opinion will warrant significant remedial action by the
audit organization:
A. Opinion letter
B. Offer letter
C. Informal opinion letter
D. Formal opinion letter
Answer: D

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NO.5 Many _____________________ are conducted in accordance with established Standards,
INTOSAI, or IFAC standards. The International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
______________________ promulgates standards for government organizations where as the
International Federation of Accountants _________________ provides additional guidance and
standards:
A. Government audits, (IFAC), (INTOSAI)
B. Government audits, (INTOSAI), (IFAC)
C. (IFAC), (INTOSAI), Government audits
D. (IFAC), Government audits, (INTOSAI)
Answer: B

IIA   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP examen   certification IIA-CGAP

NO.6 The purpose of the external quality control review is to determine whether the organization's
internal quality control system is in place and operating effectively to provide reasonable assurance
that established policies and procedures and applicable auditing standards are being followed.
A. Quality control, Quantity control
B. Internal quality control system, External quality control
C. External quality control, Internal quality control system
D. Quantity control, Quantity control
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP examen   IIA-CGAP

NO.7 Audit standards were developed and are followed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. To provide uniform guidance to auditors and to establish a basis for conducting internal and
external reviews of quality audits.
B. To build credibility and confidence in the auditing profession.
C. To inform customers (the public, public officials, management, stockholders, etc.) about the role
ofauditing.
D. Audit staff qualifications and Quality control
Answer: D

IIA examen   certification IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP examen   IIA-CGAP examen

NO.8 The application of the appropriate audit standards is dependent on all of the following issues
EXCEPT:
A. Laws and policies of the audit organization.
B. Regulations
C. Audit requirements
D. External control requirement
Answer: D

IIA examen   IIA-CGAP examen   certification IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP   certification IIA-CGAP

NO.9 Section _________ will detail some specific audit planning steps that are often utilized to
ensure that the appropriate legal and audit standards are applied in ___________:
A. Audit proposals, Audit engagements
B. Audit engagements, II.C.2 (Planning)
C. II.C.2 (Planning), Audit engagements
D. Audit engagements, Audit proposals
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP examen   certification IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP

NO.10 Although not a generally accepted practice by most audit organizations, some may not
comply with audit standards and call the final product reviews or studies. The entire following are
some specific examples where standards may not be used EXCEPT:
A. An "assignment" may have an extremely short deadline, making it virtually impossible to comply
with all appropriate audit standards.
B. The organization doesn't follow the audit standards.
C. Assignments that are strictly tied to compliance with contract terms, regulations, or grant
requirements.
D. The requesting body (legislature, for example) may not want standards to be applied to the
assignment.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Governmental auditing is distinctive and encompasses different requirements from auditing
commercial or not-for-profit enterprises. The standards that apply specifically to government audits
are all of the following EXCEPT:
A. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB).
B. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
C. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
D. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
Answer: A

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NO.12 The ____________ promulgates standards for government organizations. INTOSAI standards
are a model for government audit standards, established and endorsed by the INTOSAI organization,
but which must be adopted and/or modified by the _________ of any specific country in order to be
used?
A. Supreme Audit Institution (SAI), International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
(INTOSAI)
B. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), International Standards for
the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), Supreme Audit Institution
(SAI)
D. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA), Supreme Audit
Institution (SAI)
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CGAP examen   IIA-CGAP examen   IIA-CGAP

NO.13 All of the following groups benefit from the existence of audit standards in a variety of ways
EXCEPT:
A. Elected officials and the public receive increased assurance that public funds are being effectively
used and monitored
B. Government organization
C. Management receives increased assurance that fraud or other organizational deficiencies will be
detected and corrected.
D. External parties and reviewers are provided with usable measurement guidelines.
Answer: B

IIA   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP

NO.14 The application of appropriate standards depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The objective of the engagement
B. Availability of information.
C. Legally binding agreement
D. Other mandates or local requirements relevant to the audit organization and the engagement
itself.
Answer: C

certification IIA   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP   IIA-CGAP

NO.15 _________Help define the role and responsibilities of auditors to internal and external entities.
Where as _______establish the basic principles and guidance to assist auditors in the performance
of their duties?
A. Technical standards, Standards
B. Standards, Defense standards
C. Audit standards, Standards
D. Standards, Open standards
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CGAP examen   certification IIA-CGAP

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Le plus récent matériel de formation NI CLAD

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Code d'Examen: CLAD
Nom d'Examen: NI (Certified LabVIEW Associate Developer Examination)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following does not conform to data flow programming paradigm?
A. Shift Registers
B. Tunnels
C. SubVIs
D. Local Variables
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is the best method to update an indicator on the front panel?
A. Use a Value property node
B. Wire directlyto the indicator terminal
C. Use a local variable
D. Use a functional global variable
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a traditional debugging feature used to help find errors in a VI:
A. Highlight Execution.
B. Single Stepping
C. Breakpoints
D. Stop Values
Answer: D

NI examen   certification CLAD   CLAD

NO.4 You develop a SubVI that only outputs a value and need to use this SubVI in a (calling) VI.
Which
of the following is the best way to enforce dataflow to control the execution of the SubVI?
A. Use the SubVI in a Sequence structure
B. Modify the SubVI to have dummy inputs that can be used from the calling VI
C. Modify the SubVI to have Error clustersthat can be used from the calling VI
D. Modify the SubVI to have a global variable and use it from the calling VI
Answer: C

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NO.5 Formula nodes accept which of the following operations?
A. Basic programming language instructionsInputandPrint
B. Embedding of SubVIs within the Formula Node
C. Pre and post increment (++) and decrement (--) as in the C language
D. The use ofnestedFormula Nodestructures
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: CCD-470
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop CDH4 Upgrade Exam (CCDH))
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

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NO.1 Assuming default settings, which best describes the order of data provided to a reducer’s
reduce
method:
A. The keys given to a reducer aren’t in a predictable order, but the values associated with those
keys always are.
B. Both the keys and values passed to a reducer always appear in sorted order.
C. Neither keys nor values are in any predictable order.
D. The keys given to a reducer are in sorted order but the values associated with each key are in
no predictable order
Answer: D

Cloudera examen   CCD-470   CCD-470   CCD-470 examen

NO.2 What data does a Reducer reduce method process?
A. All the data in a single input file.
B. All data produced by a single mapper.
C. All data for a given key, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
D. All data for a given value, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode returns the block
location(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data
responds directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode then queries the
DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode
redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s). The client then reads
the data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode contacts the
DataNode that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the
NameNode, and then from the NameNode to the client.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What happens in a MapReduce job when you set the number of reducers to zero?
A. No reducer executes, but the mappers generate no output.
B. No reducer executes, and the output of each mapper is written to a separate file in HDFS.
C. No reducer executes, but the outputs of all the mappers are gathered together and written to a
single file in HDFS.
D. Setting the number of reducers to zero is invalid, and an exception is thrown.
Answer: B

Cloudera   certification CCD-470   certification CCD-470   CCD-470 examen

NO.5 You want to populate an associative array in order to perform a map-side join. You’ve decided
to
put this information in a text file, place that file into the DistributedCache and read it in your
Mapper before any records are processed.
Indentify which method in the Mapper you should use to implement code for reading the file and
populating the associative array?
A. combine
B. map
C. init
D. configure
Answer: D

Cloudera   certification CCD-470   certification CCD-470

NO.6 Identify the tool best suited to import a portion of a relational database every day as files into
HDFS, and generate Java classes to interact with that imported data?
A. Oozie
B. Flume
C. Pig
D. Hue
E. Hive
F. Sqoop
G. fuse-dfs
Answer: F

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NO.7 You are running a job that will process a single InputSplit on a cluster which has no other jobs
currently running. Each node has an equal number of open Map slots. On which node will Hadoop
first attempt to run the Map task?
A. The node with the most memory
B. The node with the lowest system load
C. The node on which this InputSplit is stored
D. The node with the most free local disk space
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSA-v6.2
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 341 Q&As

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NO.1 On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
Answer: C

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NO.3 (True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.4 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer: A

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.7 Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is executed
Answer: D

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NO.9 An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the data to the
database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external application acting as
a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a ______________________?
(Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during development of
a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database? (Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.18 Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to support PRPC
connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
Answer: B,D

Pegasystems examen   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.19 The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer: A,C

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.20 Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format? (Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer: B

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