Meilleur EMC E20-016 E10-110 E20-080 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: E20-016
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Storage Networking Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E10-110
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Enterprise Content Management)
Questions et réponses: 278 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-080
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Storage - SAN Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 210 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about full-text activation in D2?
A. For optimal full-text search capabilities, DQL Fulltext and Documentum xPlore should be used
simultaneously.
B. Activation of full-text search capabilities using Documentum xPlore and OpenSearch requires an
external search engine installation.
C. Activation of full-text search capabilities using DQL Fulltext and OpenSearch requires an external
search engine installation.
D. For optimal full-text search capabilities, DQL Fulltext and OpenSearch should be used
simultaneously.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is created by the Content Server as a result of the copy operation?
A. A relation object to the original document being copied
B. A relation object to the original document being copied with a link to the original content
C. A new document object and a copy of the original content
D. A new document object and link to the original content
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true when a checkin operation is performed by the Content Server?
A. The Lock Owner property must match the user name performing the operation before the Lock
Owner property is cleared out.
B. The Lock Owner property is set with the user name performing the operation.
C. The Owner property is set with the user name performing the operation.
D. The Last Access Date property is set to the current date and time.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true regarding functionality in D2 version 4.0 and later?
A. Full-text search results include relevance.
B. Google syntax is no longer supported for simple and advanced searches.
C. Boolean syntax is only supported in advanced searches.
D. The default setting for simple search is 5 results.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What implements subscriptions to document objects?
A. Client Application
B. BAM Server
C. Content Server
D. xPlore Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 When using a Documentum web application, which components are required for accessing a
repository?
A. Application Server, Content Server
B. BOCS, Application Server
C. ACS, Content Server
D. Rendering Server, Content Server
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding a document object with renditions?
A. Renditions are generated for each version of a document.
B. Renditions are generated for only new versions of a document.
C. Renditions are generated only from the original content.
D. Renditions cannot have images embedded.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is required to enable editing of a document in the repository?
A. The document must be checked out.
B. The document must use an appropriate permission set with Edit (Write) permission.
C. The document must be owned by the user performing the edit.
D. The user must not be editing other documents.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: EVP-100
Nom d'Examen: EMC (2011 VSE Consolidate Product & Technology Test)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

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NO.1 What feature of the VNX measures, monitors and controls application performance on the storage
system?
A. FASTVP
B. Unisphere Quality of Service Manager
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: B

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NO.2 When comparing the different software suites for the VNXe, which one of the software suites provides
for file and block snapshots?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Application Protection Suite
C. Security and Compliance Suite
D. Local Protection Suite
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the term used to describe the total amount of Thin LUN user capacity that is configured in the
Pool and
is presented to the attached hosts?
A. Over Subscribed Capacity
B. Host Capacity
C. Subscribed Capacity
D. User Capacity
Answer: C

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NO.4 What feature of the VNX allows the array to free up space by eliminating redundant data?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. FASTVP
C. Data Compression
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which three (3) are considered software features of the VNXe?
A. integrated Data Protection
B. FibreChannel Connectivity
C. Active/active ease of use
D. Simplified Management
E. Unified IP based protocols
F. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Which two (2) are key benefits of the VNX File Reduplication?
A. Reduced power costs
B. Improved application performance
C. Improved reliability of applications
D. Reduced reliance on short-term tape retention
E. Improved LAN and WAN performance
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 What type of drive is best suited for environments where high IOPS is required?
A. SAS
B. Flash Drives
C. Fibre Channel
D. NL SAS
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which (3) are considered software features of VNX.?
A. Unified IP based protocols
B. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
C. FibreChannel Connectivity
D. Simplified Management
E. Integrated Data Protection
F. Active/active ease of use
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.9 Which three (3) protocols will the VNXe array work with?
A. iSCSI (file emulated)
B. Fibre Channel
C. FTP/SFTP
D. CIFS
E. iSCSI (native block)
F. NFS
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.10 When comparing the different software suites for the VNX, which one provides for automated,
application aware replication, monitoring, notification, and reporting via Replication Manager and Data
Protection Advisor for Replication Analysis?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Security and Compliance Suite
C. Local Protection Suite
D. Application Protection Suite
Answer: D

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NO.11 Zoning with World Wide Names is often referred to as what?
A. Host Zoning
B. Hard Zoning
C. WWNN Zoning
D. Soft Zoning
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which compression state is being utilized when data compression is first enabled while background
setup
operations are performed by system?
A. Compressing
B. Compressed
C. Queued
D. Initializing
Answer: D

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NO.13 What feature of the VNX allows the array to move more active data to faster drives and less active
data to
slower drives?
A. FASTVP
B. FAST Cashe
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two (2) new drive types were introduced with the VNX array family?
A. Enterprise Flash Drives
B. SAS
C. Fibre Channel
D. SATA Flash Drives
E. NL SAS
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 Which VNX Array is Block Based only?
A. VNX5100
B. VNX5500
C. VNX5300
D. VNX5700
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which suite of software is the Unisphere Analyzer part of?
A. VNX Local Protection Suite
B. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two (2) VNX Arrays will the Velocity partners focus their efforts on selling?
A. VNX5700
B. VNX5300
C. VNX5500
D. VNX7500
E. VNX5100
Answer: B,E

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NO.18 What feature of the VNX allows the array to avoid cache misses and improves response time by
promoting data from Hard Disk Drives to Flash Drives?
A. FASTVP
B. Data Compression
C. Fash Cashe
D. Unisphere Analyzer
Answer: C

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NO.19 The VNX Total Protection Pack consists of which of the software suites?
A. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
B. VNX Local Protection Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
E. VNX Application Protection Suite
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.20 What feature of the VNX allows the array to identify bottlenecks and hot-spots in the VNX storage
systems?
A. Data Compression
B. Unisphere Analyzer
C. FASTVP
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-547
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators )
Questions et réponses: 203 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a windows server 2003 host,
but the quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
C. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the preferred method for partitioning VNX FC LUNs attached to a Windows Server 2008 R2
host?
A. Disk Management
B. fdisk
C. format
D. vtoc
Answer: A

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NO.3 A file system has auto_extend enabled. If the file system size is greater than the extend_size value.
What will happen when the file system reaches its HWM?
A. The file system will not be extended
B. The extend size value cannot by less than the die system size
C. The file system is extended by the extend_size value
D. The file system is extended by five percent of its size
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which criterion must be met before executing the storage pool -destroy command with Navisphere
secure CLI.
A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool
B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool
C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool
D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Unisphere storage role will limit a user to the administration of the file system checkpoints, LUN
mirrors, and replication manager tasks?
A. Data recovery
B. Administration
C. Data protection
D. NAS administrator
Answer: C

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NO.6 In a VNX series array, how does FAST manage data in a heterogeneous storage pool?
A. It relocates LUNs from one tier to another to improve performance.
B. It relocates more active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
C. It relocates more active data from tier 1storage without users noticing the difference.
D. It acts as an application accelerator and relocates LUNs based on performance.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Linux kernel supports dynamic LUN scanning?
A. 2.3
B. 2.4
C. 2.5
D. 2.6
Answer: D

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NO.8 What happens when a new CFS share is created using Unisphere and all available CIFS server check
boxes remain unchecked?
A. The VNX system prompts for selection of at least one CFS server
B. A global share Is created and served by the primary VDM
C. A global share is created and served by all CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover
D. None of the CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover serve the newly created share
Answer: D

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NO.9 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured cloned LUN?
A. The peer SP acquires the feature logs
B. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the feature logs
D. Neither the clone LUN nor the feature logs will be acquired by the peer SP
Answer: C

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NO.10 What does the acronym "CHAP" refer to?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
B. Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol
C. CLARiiON Handshake Authentication
D. Consistent Host Application Protocol
Answer: A

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NO.11 What will prevent a storage administrator from deleting a storage group?
A. The presence of LUNs in the storage group
B. The presence of MirrorView target LUNs in the storage group
C. The presence of MirrorView source LUNs in the storage group
D. The presence of hosts in the storage group
Answer: D

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NO.12 What happens when a reverse synchronization completes without Protected Restore Mode enabled?
A. Only the reverse-synchronized clone remains unfractured
B. Host writes to the source LUN are not mirrored to clone
C. The gold copy clone used for restore will remain as is
D. All clones will be fractured
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which failover mode must be configured to use vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
functionality?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the CLI command to enable Access Logix?
A. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable
B. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -enable
C. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -on
D. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -on
Answer: B

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NO.15 At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in report format when using Data Protection
Advisor.?
A. RPA configuration changes
B. Replication sets
C. Replication lag
D. Link state change
Answer: C

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NO.17 After presenting a LUN to a Linux host, which utility is used to configure a partition?
A. fdisk
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. Unisphere Service Manager
D. Disk Management
Answer: A

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NO.18 When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to
an active VNX Data Mover
How does VNX handle this situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active
B. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem
C. The active Data Mover immediately fails over
D. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which Unisphere wizard can automatically allocate all available disk storage and present it as private
LUNs?
A. Backend Bus Reset Wizard
B. File System Wizard
C. Disk Provisioning Wizard for File
D. Celera Setup Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.20 How many storage groups can a host belong to in an array?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-690
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-690   E20-690 examen

NO.2 A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX
storage system. How would you respond?
A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± SAS o r t w en t -five 3.5" EFD disk drives
B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± EFD , SAS o r t w en t -five 2.5" SAS disk drives
C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± FC , EFD o r t w en t -five .2.5" SAS disk drives
D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± EFD , FC o r t w en t -five 2.5 ± EFD d i sk d ri ves
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-690   E20-690 examen   E20-690 examen   E20-690 examen   E20-690

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 2 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
B. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
Answer: B

EMC   E20-690   E20-690 examen

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Which component is located in location 3?
A. CS 1
B. CS 0
C. DAE 0
D. DAE 1
Answer: A

EMC   E20-690   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690

NO.5 What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: C

EMC examen   certification E20-690   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690

NO.6 Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-690   E20-690 examen

NO.7 What protocols does the Data Mover support.?
A. CIFS, NFS, pNFS and MPFS
B. CIFS, pNFS, and SCSI
C. MPFS, HTTP, FTP, and NFS
D. NFS, FC, and CIFS
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-690   certification E20-690   E20-690   E20-690

NO.8 Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-690   E20-690

NO.9 Where can you find the widest range of resources for VNX-related information?
A. VNX Family Product Page
B. Support by Product
C. Partners Web Page
D. IP Storage Handbook
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-690 examen   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690   certification E20-690   E20-690 examen

NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 1 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Answer: A

EMC   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690   E20-690

NO.11 Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-690   E20-690 examen   E20-690 examen

NO.12 A new VNX Unified system has been installed. The engineer would like to verify that the hosts are
running a supported operating system and EMC PowerPath software version. What resource should be
used?
A. VNX Simple Support Matrix
B. VNX Procedure Generator
C. VNX Installation Toolkit
D. VNX Product Support Bulletins
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690   E20-690   E20-690

NO.13 How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Answer: A

EMC   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690 examen   E20-690

NO.14 What are the minimum components required to configure a VNX5500 for Block storage system?
A. Control Station, SP, DAE
B. Control Station, SP, DME
C. SP, DME, DAE
D. SPS, SPE, DAE
Answer: D

EMC   E20-690   certification E20-690   E20-690

NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is DM 3 located?
A. Location 6
B. Location 5
C. Location 7
D. Location 10
Answer: A

EMC   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690

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Code d'Examen: E20-555
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Isilon Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 225 Q&As

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NO.1 When an Isilon SyncIQ replication job completes, how many SnapshotIQ policies can be
created on a target cluster directory?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

certification EMC   certification E20-555   certification E20-555

NO.2 If Isilon SmartConnect is being configured in a customer environment, which records are
required for a supported implementation?
A. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a zone delegation for the SmartConnect zone
delegated to the SSIP
B. An overloaded host record with each SmartConnect zone member's IP address and an SRV record
to provide resolution services
C. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a corresponding PTR record for each SmartConnect
zone
D. A SOA record for the SmartConnect Service IP and a corresponding CNAME record for each
SmartConnect zone
Answer: A

EMC   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555

NO.3 -- Exhibit -
We have been engaged by a research hospital to help upgrade their Isilon installation.
They currently have 12 previous generation Isilon nodes with 200TB of capacity and run on a 1Gbps
network.
They currently have 6 Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers and an HPC cluster to process data.
They would like to expand Isilon to 2PB of active data and 1PB of archive data.
They use a third party data and metadata management service (IRODs) to stage data for analysis.
The Isilon cluster is mainly used for analysis work with the HPC cluster.
-- Exhibit -
The customer will add two more Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers in the next 6 months.
Once these are added, what is the total amount of data from all the sequencers they can expect to
add per month?
A. 9.6 TB
B. 4.8 TB
C. 1.2 TB
D. 14.4 TB
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555

NO.4 An Isilon customer has an environment supporting a wide range of different workloads. They
want to assign clients to performance tiers based on the resources needed.
What can the customer use to meet this requirement?
A. SmartConnect Zones
B. Load Balancing
C. Client Connection Zone
D. SmartPools Advanced
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-555   E20-555 examen   E20-555   certification E20-555   E20-555

NO.5 Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source
broadcast media files for playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses
and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed that there are no network or playback system issues.
Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues?
A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes
B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version
C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced
D. Enable Level 2 Caching
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-555   E20-555   E20-555 examen   E20-555

NO.6 At a minimum, how many connected and available nodes are required to maintain quorum in
a 25-node cluster?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 17
Answer: C

EMC   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555

NO.7 A Media and Entertainment company is considering changing from 2K resolution to 4K
resolution. They will continue to use the DNxHD 220 codec.
Assuming everything else stays the same, how will this change affect storage?
A. Storage will be half as large
B. Storage requirements will not change
C. Storage will be twice as large
D. Storage will be four times as large
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-555   certification E20-555   E20-555

NO.8 A customer created one month of snapshots; one snapshot every 8 hours for 30 days on an
Isilon cluster using SnapshotIQ. They are now deleting the snapshots randomly and experiencing
overhead to the cluster.
How can the snapshots be removed while avoiding the overhead caused by this process?
A. Delete the snapshots in order
B. Use SmartPools to move the snapshot data to a different tier
C. Snapshots cannot be deleted
D. Remove the directory
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-555   E20-555

NO.9 What is the maximum volume or aggregate size that can be created with an Isilon Scale-Out
NAS system?
A. 16 TB
B. 100 TB
C. 2.3 PB
D. 20 PB
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555

NO.10 A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor's offering. They currently
have 100TB of usable capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years,
which will require them to lease additional space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI
and TCO to be important decision criteria.
Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer?
A. Isilon's OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID
based NAS solutions.
B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other
competitors.
C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance
may degrade.
D. Isilon's OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than
competitive offerings.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555

NO.11 A NetApp customer is considering Isilon. They use their filers for UNIX home directories, and
would like to see a suggested configuration that would meet their needs.
What would you do to help size this cluster?
A. Ask for an autosupport file and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
B. Ask them to install InsightIQ and collect data from the filer, then import to SQL for analysis
C. Ask for the output from nfsstat and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
D. Use tcpdump and upload the output file to MiTrends to generate a protocol analysis
Answer: C

EMC   E20-555   E20-555 examen   E20-555   E20-555

NO.12 What does Isilon OneFS use to re-write data when a disk read fails?
A. Dynamic Sector Repair
B. NVRAM
C. Isilon Data Integrity
D. CRC
Answer: A

EMC   E20-555   E20-555

NO.13 An Isilon customer expressed an interest in more effectively managing their storage.
Specifically, they would like to plan for future growth.
Which tool would allow the customer to forecast capacity requirements?
A. InsightIQ
B. Isilon SNMP MIB
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartPools
Answer: C

EMC   E20-555 examen   E20-555   E20-555   E20-555 examen   E20-555 examen

NO.14 An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an
Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory. The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster
does not automatically allow writes to the data in the replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover
is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target
cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data
on the target directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available
for use by SyncIQ.
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-555   certification E20-555

NO.15 -- Exhibit -
A large manufacturing company is an existing Isilon customer with a cluster consisting of four NL400
nodes with 4TB drives. The cluster is using N+2:1 protection level and the file system shows that it is
60% utilized. Home directories and file shares comprise 75% of the existing content and the
remainder is inactive deep archive. The company has 1,000 employees using Windows and Mac
clients participating in a single Active Directory (AD) forest.
During a meeting with the CIO and Director of IT you discuss the company's recent acquisition - an
engineering firm that specializes in Computer Aided Design (CAD). The engineering firm has 400
UNIX workstations that produce technical drawings which are currently stored on another vendor's
SAN solution. The all UNIX environment uses NIS for authentication and name resolution. They do
not currently use DNS or LDAP . The engineering company has an old storage system that has been
experiencing problems and the CIO would like you to migrate the data onto the Isilon cluster. The
CIO would like to eliminate all tape and recover the data onto disk.
The CIO is concerned about security of the company's intellectual property, especially with the rapid
adoption of mobile devices and external cloud content sharing services such as DropBox, Egnyte,
and SugarSync. They would like to implement an alternative that provides external file sharing and
mobile device synchronization while maintaining security control over the company's data.
The Director of IT reports that users are storing non-work related content on the Isilon cluster. They
would like to limit the amount of capacity that each user can consume in their home directory and
want to ensure you provide the capability to easily visualize which users are over their
allotment.The company's Windows users currently leverage Windows Shadow Copy to recover files
that have been accidentally deleted. The IT department wants to ensure that Mac and incoming
UNIX clients have the same functionality.
The Director of IT also mentions that users are reporting slow response times when browsing their
home directories and shared folders. They are concerned that Isilon cannot scale to support their
combined requirements.
-- Exhibit -
Based on the meeting with the customer, which Isilon cluster configuration would you recommend?
A. 4 x X400 nodes with 2 x SSD and 34 x 4TB drives 1 x Additional NL400
B. 6 x X400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives 1 x Backup Accelerator
C. 4 x NL400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives
D. 9 x S200 nodes with 2 x SSD and 22 x 900GB SAS
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-670
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to
corporate resources?
Select the best response.
A. VPN-enabled routers
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.2 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

EMC   certification E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.3 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-670   E20-670 examen

NO.4 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-670   certification E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670

NO.5 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

EMC   E20-670 examen   E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.6 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-670 examen   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.7 What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?
Select the best response.
A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classes
B. Live instructor-led, web-based classes
C. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning
D. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customers
E. Lists of training-partner class offerings
Answer: C

EMC   E20-670 examen   E20-670   E20-670 examen

NO.8 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

certification EMC   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670 examen

NO.9 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-670   E20-670

NO.10 What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs,
yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Joint Marketing Fund
D. Cisco Discovery
E. Steps to Success
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-670 examen   certification E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670

NO.11 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-670 examen   E20-670   E20-670 examen   E20-670 examen   E20-670

NO.12 Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-670 examen   certification E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.13 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

EMC   certification E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.14 On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only
Answer: C

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NO.15 What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

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NO.17 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: D

EMC   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.19 What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-322
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Technology Architect Solutions Design)
Questions et réponses: 568 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer uses an SCA appliance to provide environment discovery and compliance reports. The
current SCA implementation is experiencing workload issues due to the extremely large number of
objects being managed.
Which solution should you recommend to address this issue?
A.Increase the number of SCA external agents
B.Install an additional SCA appliance
C.Add an additional network interface to the SCA appliance
D.Increase the heap size on the EMC Ionix ControlCenter API server
Answer:B

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NO.2 A customer would like to eliminate tape from their backup environment. They do not have a SAN
infrastructure.
Which solution should you recommend?
A.EDL 4406
B.Symmetrix with SATA
C.CLARiiON CX with SATA
D.NS80 with internal VTLU
Answer:D

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NO.3 How often does SAN Advisor retrieve new information from EMC Ionix ControlCenter and identify
compliance violations?
A.Only when downloading the latest support information from an EMC website
B.Only when an alert has been triggered
C.Once per week
D.Once per day
Answer:D

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NO.4 How does Atmos handle data protection?
A.SOAP
B.Replication
C.Rsync
D.REST
Answer:B

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NO.5 A customer is looking for a best practice for a mission-critical Oracle application. They require a
point-in-time copy of their database for reporting in their Symmetrix environment. This point-in-time
environment must have no impact on production.
Which configuration would you recommend?
A.Synchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time clone off the R1s
B.Point-in-time clone off R1s, activated and mounted at the target
C.synchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time snap off the R1s
D.ynchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time clone off the R2s
Answer:D

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NO.6 In addition to "Software as a Service" and "Infrastructure as a Service," which main category of service
falls within the definition of cloud computing?
A.Platform as a Service
B.Hardware as a Service
C.VM as a Service
D.Facility as a Service
Answer:A

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NO.7 An organization currently uses a physical Storage Configuration Advisor (SCA) appliance to discover,
monitor, and report configuration compliance for 1,600 hosts. This number is expected to grow to 2,500 in
the near future. They would like to migrate this management function to virtual servers.
How many virtual SCA appliances are needed to meet this requirement?
A.5
B.3
C.4
D.2
Answer:C

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NO.8 A customer has recently purchased Open Replicator and needs to know which GUI interface would be
best for administration.
What should be your response?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.SAN Advisor
C.Symmetrix Management Console
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
Answer:C

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NO.9 A request has been made to collect the information that has been gathered by SAN Advisor. You notice
the data has not been collected.
In order for SAN Advisor to receive information about the environment, what service is used?
A.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter StorageScope Repository
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
Answer:D

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NO.10 You performed an analysis of the I/O profile of a SQL Server environment that has performance and
availability issues. Having identified disk contention as the primary problem, what would be your
recommendation?
A.Enable fast file initialization
B.Allocate additional spindles and migrate the transaction logs to the new RAID group
C.Move SQL transaction log and database files to the same RAID/disk group
D.Enable SQL Server to keep pages in memory
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which product delivers simple automation to enable end-to-end virtual-to-physical mapping of physical
storage and servers, as well as ESX servers and the virtual machines that reside on them?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.Navisphere Analyzer
C.VMware Server
D.vCenter Server
Answer:A

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NO.12 You must design a backup solution for an existing Celerra NS80 customer. The customer has decided
that the expense of expanding their tape hardware infrastructure to support the additional load is not
justified because the data is for department-level user shares.
Which alternate solution should you use to back up the Celerra with minimal cost and disruption to their
current backup procedures?
A.Add an EMC Disk Library with 1 TB SATA drives
B.Add FC disks to the NS80 and back up using Celerra VTLUs
C.Add SATA disks to the NS80 and back up to disk
D.Add a second NS80 and replicate the backup data
Answer:C

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NO.13 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site. They will be using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup
application. A small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it
will eventually expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Remote Copy
B.RecoverPoint
C.Active Engine Failover
D.Virtual Tape Migration
Answer:A

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NO.14 A customer is implementing a new DMX-4 system in their data center. They have decided to use
Enterprise Flash Drive (EFD) technology in their design for their critical Oracle database.
Which database objects would gain the least benefit from EFDs?
A.High transaction rate table/index
B.Lookup tables
C.Index
D.Redo logs
Answer:D

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NO.15 You have been requested to provide a solution that will monitor resource best practices, create alerts
when the environment exceeds recommended boundaries, and requires no agents to be installed on the
network.
Which product will provide this capability?
A.Storage Configuration Advisor
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
C.SAN Advisor
D.Storage Insight for Availability
Answer:A

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NO.16 A SQL Server implementation has been experiencing poor I/O performance. You are asked to identify
the root cause of the performance issues.
Which tool should you use for your analysis?
A.SQL Server Profiler
B.SQL Server Configuration Manager
C.SQL Query Editor
D.SQL Server VDI
Answer:A

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NO.17 You have been requested to create a SAN Advisor design that can accommodate 250 to 500 hosts.
Which component should be placed on its own dedicated host?
A.StorageScope Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
Answer:B

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NO.18 Your customer is experiencing performance issues with three CLARiiON-attached hosts and you've
already ruled out server hardware and network latency as possible causes. All of these hosts' LUNs are
part of the same RAID group, so you now need to determine which host's LUNs are causing the RAID
group's performance degradation.
Which Navisphere Analyzer data view would help you determine which LUNs are having the greatest
effect on the disks' performance?
A.Performance Detail line chart
B.LUN Performance Survey chart
C.I/O Distribution Size Detail chart
D.LUN I/O Disk Detail chart
Answer:D

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NO.19 A business is planning to migrate a physical, Oracle 11g database environment to a virtualized VMAX
platform.
What would be the primary benefit to the business if such a migration were implemented?
A.Migrating to new servers or new storage devices would enable the business to maintain 100% uptime.
B.Virtualization would enable multiple Oracle database environments to run under one instance.
C.VMAX configurations would provide auto back-end load balancing configurations for Oracle dbf files.
D.Virtualization on VMAX storage would automatically lay out database objects.
Answer:A

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NO.20 A customer has implemented RecoverPoint to protect a Progress database and SQL Server as a
Federated database. Changes to the Progress database and SQL Server are asynchronously replicated
to the remote disaster recovery (DR) site.
What should be done to ensure consistent recovery at the DR site for this environment?
A.Put SQL Server and the Progress database briefly into a quiescent state before taking snapshots used
for recovery
B.Use the Write Ahead transaction Logging (WAL) mechanism on the Progress and SQL Server
databases
C.Use Peer To Peer Transactional Replication for both the SQL Server and Progress databases
D.Create periodic group set bookmarks to ensure that the two databases are periodically synchronized
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: E20-597
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a characteristic of cloud volumes in EMC NetWorker?
A.Infinitely appendable
B.Recyclable
C.Space cannot be reclaimed.
D.Data cannot be compressed or encrypted.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a characteristic of VCB backups in EMC NetWorker?
A.Supports image and file-based backups
B.Requires a NetWorker client on each virtual machine
C.Requires a storage node on the VCB backup proxy
D.Does not support LAN-free backup
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer using EMC NetWorker Power edition attempts to set server parallelism to 96. When saving
the changes they notice that the server parallelism reverts back to 64.
What action needs to be taken to set server parallelism to 96.?
A. Set device max sessions to 96.
B. Configure group parallelism to 96.
C. Enable diagnostic mode.
D. Add NetWorker Storage Node Enabler Code.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have an EMC NetWorker server with one storage node. There is an autoloader with four tape drives.
Two drives each are dedicated to the server and storage node. A new Celerra has been added to the
network with 500 GB of data. What must be done to back up the data on the Celerra?
A. Create a storage node on the Celerra and select NDMP in the "type of storage node" field.
B. Configure a device on the NetWorker server as an NDMP device and back up the Celerra to this
device.
C. Configure a client for the Celerra to use DSA and back up its data to either the NetWorker server or
storage node.
D. Create an NDMP backup pool and add this pool to a save group with other clients.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Microsoft VSS component is responsible for creation and maintenance of a shadow copy?
A. Requestor
B. Provider
C. Writer
D. Interceptor
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has the following EMC NetWorker configuration:
How many nsrlcpd processes are running on the NetWorker server?
A. 4
B. 12
C. 16
D. 0
Answer: D

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NO.7 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to perform a complete backup of a SQL server with three
databases. Which save set name should be used?
A.MSSQL:DB
B.MSSQL:*
C.MSSQL:ALLDB
D.MSSQL:
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have successfully configured three SQL servers for backup with the EMC NetWorker Module for
SQL. These servers are configured as follows:
Scheduled backup of the group shows that all SQL data from the three servers was successfully backed
up. However, when you attempt to recover the SQL data using the standard NetWorker user GUI, you
only see file system data to recover.
What must you do to recover the SQL data backed up with the NetWorker module?
A. Modify the browse time within the NetWorker user GUI to show the period for which you want to
recover.
B. Use the Microsoft SQL Server native tools to recover the data from NetWorker.
C. Modify the save set to include an instance or database name after MSSQL:.
D. Launch the NetWorker User for SQL.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a characteristic of how the EMC NetWorker modules integrate with native applications?
A. The developer of the native application provides a NetWorker module to allow for protection of their
application with NetWorker.
B. The NetWorker module runs on the NetWorker server and acts as an intermediary for data coming
from the NetWorker client module.
C. The NetWorker module acts as an intermediate layer between NetWorker and the native application.
D. The NetWorker module always takes the place of the standard NetWorker client allowing for backup of
applications and file systems.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit. An EMC NetWorker customer has two data zones, A and B, with autochanger AC1
and AC2, respectively, with four drives each. AC1 is configured as a dedicated autochanger and AC2 is
configured as a shared autochanger.
Two drives of AC2 are statically assigned. How many drives of AC2 can be shared in Zone A?
A. 2
B. 0
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.11 A backup administrator is configuring an EMC NetWorker embedded storage node within an EMC Disk
Library. To ensure that the embedded storage node is used to read the data during clone operations, what
is required?
A.Add the Disk Library engine's hostname to the "Read hostname" field in the device properties.
B.Set the clone storage node value for the embedded storage node client resource to itself.
C.Create a client for the embedded storage node.
D.Create a clone pool and assign the appropriate rights to it.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit. In an EMC NetWorker environment, the storage node sn1 is down for maintenance.
According to the client properties, what happens when the backup of the client starts?
A. The backup data will be sent to the storage node sn2.
B. The backup will fail as the storage node sn1 is not available.
C. The backup data will be sent to any available storage node.
D. The backup data will be sent to the NetWorker server.
Answer: A

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NO.13 When adding an EMC NetWorker server's name into the /nsr/res/servers file of a client, which service
must be restarted on the client for the change to take effect?
A. nsrd
B. nsrexecd
C. nsrindexd
D. nsrdb
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the backup command specified in the EMC NetWorker client resource for EMC Centera
backups?
A.savepnpc
B.nsrdasv
C.nsrndmp_save
D.nsrsnap_vss_save.exe
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is a characteristic of EMC NetWorker SnapImage module backups?
A.Block-level backups of dense file systems
B.Fast block-level backups of a file system mounted on a proxy server
C.Immediate recovery of a file system from a persistent snapshot
D.SAN-based image-level backup and recovery of file systems
Answer: A

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